CBSE NET Law June-2013 Solved Paper III

  1. In E. P. Royappa case which of the Supreme Court Judge propounded the new concept of Equality as “Equality is a dynamic concept with many aspects and dimensions and it cannot be ‘crippled, combined and confined’ within traditional and doctrinaire limits”

    1. Justice Y. V. Chandrachud

    2. Justice P. N. Bhagawati

    3. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer

    4. Justice O. P. Chinnapa Reddy

    Answer: b

  2. The State shall make provisions for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief is found

    1. As a part of the Preamble to the Constitution of India.

    2. As a Fundamental Right under Art 21 of the Constitution of India.

    3. As a Directive Principle of the State Policy.

    4. As a Fundamental Duty of the State.

    Answer: c

  3. Fundamental duties under Part IVA was inserted in the Constitution by

    1. 17th Amendment

    2. 25th Amendment

    3. 42nd Amendment

    4. 44th Amendment

    Answer: c

  4. The powers of the President of India are

    1. Supra-Constitutional

    2. Beyond the Constitution

    3. In accordance with the Parliament of India

    4. In accordance with the Constitution of India

    Answer: d

  5. Which one of the following has been considered as authority of power?

    1. The Constitution of India

    2. The President of India

    3. The Parliament of India

    4. The Supreme Court of India

    Answer: a

  6. In which of the following judgmentsit was held that according to Art. 226, Courts are flooded with large number of PIL, so it is desrable for Courts to filter out frivolous petitions and dismiss them with costs?

    1. Deepak Sharma vs. Vineeta Sharma

    2. Dharampal vs. State of Uttar Pradesh

    3. Holicow Pictures Pvt. Ltd. Vs. Premchandra Mishra

    4. M. C. Mehta vs. Union of India

    Answer: c

  7. A resolution for the revocation of the proclamation of National Emergency may be moved by

    1. Ten members of Lok Sabha

    2. One-fifth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha.

    3. One-tenth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha.

    4. One-fifteenth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha.

    Answer: c

  8. Answer the following using the codes given below: Administrative Law deals with:

    1. Composition, powers and functions of the administrative authorities.

    2. Procedures to be followed by the administrative authorities in the exercise of their powers and functions.

    3. Methods of control of powers of the administrative authorities.

    4. Remedies available to a person in case of violation of his rights by the administrative authorities.

    Code:

    1. Only 1 is correct.

    2. Only 1 and 2 are correct.

    3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

    4. All of the above are correct.

    Answer: d

    • Assertion (A): One of the principles of natural justice is, ‘No man shall be judge in his own cause’
    • Reason (R): Principles of natural justice require fair play in action.
    1. A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (A).

    2. A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).

    3. A is true and R is false.

    4. A is false and R is true.

    Answer: a

  9. Match List-I with List-II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below:

    List-I List-II
    1. AK Kraipak vs. Union of India

    2. ManakLal vs. Dr. Prem Chand

    3. Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India

    4. Olga Tellis vs. Bombay Municipal Corporation

    1. Post decisional hearing

    2. Personal bias

    3. Pecuniary bias

    4. Reasonable opportunity of hearing

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
      • 1
      • 2
      • 3
      • 4
      • 1
      • 3
      • 4
      • 2
      • 2
      • 3
      • 1
      • 4
      • 3
      • 2
      • 4
      • 1

    Answer: c

  10. Answer the following using the codes given below: Which of the following doctrines were developed by the Court to control the administrative actions?

    1. Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel.

    2. Doctrine of Legitimate Expectations.

    3. Doctrine of Separation of Power and Rule of Law.

    4. Judicial Activism.

    Codes:

    1. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

    2. Only 2 and 4 are correct.

    3. Only 1 and 3 are correct.

    4. All of the above are correct.

    Answer: d

  11. Answer the following using the codes given below: In which of the following grounds the judicial review of an administrative action be made?

    1. Abuse of discretion

    2. Mala fide or bad fath

    3. Irrelevant consideration

    4. Unreasonableness

    Codes:

    1. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

    2. Only 1 and 2 are correct.

    3. Only 2 and 3 are correct.

    4. All 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

    Answer: d

  12. A writ of mandamus will not lie against

    1. President of India

    2. Parliament

    3. Local authorities

    4. Courts and Tribunals

    Answer: a

  13. Match List-I with List-II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below:

    List-I List-II
    1. Bring the body before the Court

    2. Petitioner's legal right to compel the performance of public duty

    3. By what authority a person is holding the public post

    4. Action ofsubordinate Courtin violation of theprinciples ofnatural justice

    1. Writ of Mandamus

    2. Writ of Certiorari

    3. Writ of Habeas Corpus

    4. Writ of Quowarranto

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
      • 1
      • 2
      • 3
      • 4
      • 3
      • 1
      • 4
      • 2
      • 3
      • 2
      • 1
      • 4
      • 3
      • 4
      • 2
      • 1

    Answer: b

  14. Which one of the following States has not yet established the institution of Lokayukta?

    1. Uttar Pradesh

    2. Karnataka

    3. Uttarakhand

    4. None of the above

    Answer: d

  15. “A legal person is any subject matter other than a human being to which law attributes personality.” Who said these words?

    1. Savigny

    2. Bentham

    3. Austin

    4. Salmond

    Answer: d

  16. “Pure theory of Law is an exercise in logic and not life.” This observation was made by

    1. Pound

    2. Savigny

    3. Maine

    4. Harold Laski

    Answer: d

  17. “Law is derived from social facts and not dependent on State authority but on social compulsion.” Who said this?

    1. Putchta

    2. Ehrlich

    3. Friedman

    4. Pound

    Answer: b

  18. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

      • Sieuteretero out alierum non laedas
      • To use your own property as not to injure your neighbour's right
      • Re Legitima Portis
      • A person cannot dispose of his entire property
      • Jus turtii
      • To set up title of a third person other than himself or the plaintiff
      • Nec 6 neccalurprecario
      • Possession must show to the competitor

    Answer: d

    • Assertion (A): In India the distinction between legal and equitable ownership is not recognized.
    • Reason (R): The trustees are, subject to the law relating to trust and trustees, bound to carry out the trust according to the dictates of the maker of the trust.
    1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (A).

    2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).

    3. A is true, but R is false.

    4. A is false, but R is true.

    Answer: b

  19. The purpose theory is based on the assumpton that “person is applicable only to human beings; they alone can be the subjects of rural relations” Who developed this theory of Brinz in England?

    1. Barker

    2. Duguit

    3. Salmond

    4. Hoffman

    Answer: a

  20. “Ownership in its comprehensive signification denotes the relation between a person and any right that is vested in him. That which a man owns in this sense is in all cases a right.” Who is the exponent of this theory?

    1. Miss Tay

    2. Maitland

    3. Salmond

    4. Fuller

    Answer: c

  21. “Legal rights are institutional rights to decisions in Courts. Institutions about justice presuppose a fundamental right, namely, the right to equality, which I call the right to equal concern and respect.” Who propounded this theory in relation to natural rights?

    1. Dworkin

    2. Fuller

    3. Jerome Hall

    4. Professor Hart

    Answer: a

  22. Fill in the gap that is mostappropriate. Whoever entices a girl child of less than 16 years has said to have caused kidnapping out of the keeping of the lawful ______.

    1. Parents

    2. Foster parents

    3. Adopted parents

    4. Guardians

    Answer: d

  23. Fill in the gap with the offence that the accused has committed. Whoever dishonestly uses any moveable property to his own advantage has committed the offence of ______.

    1. Breach of trust

    2. Wrongful gain

    3. Misappropriation

    4. None of the above

    Answer: c

  24. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below point out the correct explanation. Assertion I: Moral derangement is a state of will and turns to be the vehicle of vicious actions. Reason II: Crime is committed under the influence of instructive and irresistible impulse. Codes:

    1. Moral insanity or imbecility is not exempted from criminal liability as per Section 53 of IPC.

    2. Both I and II are correct statements to attract criminal liability as per Section 53 IPC as both are diabolical criminal conduct.

    3. Only by II criminal responsibility can be fixed but not with the help of I.

    4. Mc Naghten's Rule can be applied in I but not in II.

    Answer: b

  25. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of given codes point out the correct explanation. Assertion I: Consent of husband or wife of the victim does not grant immunity from the offence of bigamy. Reason II: Sexual offence with the consent of one spouse does not fix liability for adultery. Codes:

    1. I is correct, but not with the reason of II.

    2. I is correct, but with the support of II.

    3. II is only the correct proposition while I is void.

    4. II is valid when I is not admissible.

    Answer: a

  26. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below point out the correct explanation. Assertion I: To establish a charge of conspiracy, knowledge about indulgence in an illegal act by certain legal means, is necessary. Reason II: The normal rule is that when a particular unlawful use being intended has to be inferred from the chain ofactions. Codes:

    1. I is the judicious cause of conspiracy, because II is the correct explanation.

    2. II is more appropriate explanation than merely fixing charge as per I.

    3. I is the correct proposition as II is optional.

    4. I is not correct because as per II there must be pre-meditation.

    Answer: a

  27. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below point out the correct explanation. Assertion I: Publishing a report of proceedings of a Court will not amount to defamation. Reason II: It is an exception to the principle of defamation. Codes:

    1. I is true, because II is the specific objective.

    2. I is true, but II is not the correct proposition.

    3. II is always true, because I is not dependent.

    4. II is false, because I is always independent of criminal liability.

    Answer: a

  28. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below point out the correct explanation. Assertion I: Independently putting a person in fear of injury to another is extortion. Reason II: It is an exception to the rule of delivering the valuable security. Codes:

    1. I is true, but II is not the correct statement.

    2. I is true, because II is the correct proposition.

    3. Both I and II are independent of proof.

    4. Both I and II are false.

    Answer: b

  29. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below find out the correct explanation. Assertion I: Disorder of mind which impars the mental faculties is known as unsoundness of mind as such it acts as defence to a criminal charge. Reason II: Insanity is the mental abnormality and when it impairs the cognitive faculty and if an act results during that period criminal liability could be exempted. Codes:

    1. By I there is transgression of harmful acts while II refers to established rules of society for which no prosecution stands.

    2. Both I and II are correct explanations as per Section 84 of IPC.

    3. II is more precise while I isonly a supportive factor.

    4. The true test of I and II is to apply Mc Naghten's Rule.

    Answer: b

  30. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, and the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, were passed by the Parliament under:

    1. Article 252 of the Constitutionof India.

    2. Article 253 of the Constitution of India.

    3. Article 250 of the Constitution of India.

    4. None of the above:

    Answer: b

  31. Which of the following Judges of the Supreme Court is famously known as the “Green Judge”

    1. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyyar

    2. Justice P. N. Bhagwati

    3. Justice Kuldip Singh

    4. Justice B. N. Kirpal

    Answer: c

  32. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India have been mostly used by the Supreme Court to protect environment?

    1. Article 32

    2. Article 21

    3. Both Articles 21 and 32

    4. None of the above

    Answer: c

  33. What is the period of notice required to be served upon the Central Government for filing a criminal complaint by any person, under the provisions of Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?

    1. Not less than 30 days

    2. Not less than 60 days

    3. Not less than 90 days

    4. None of the above

    Answer: b

  34. Which one of the following cases is considered as “High Water-mark case in Forest Protection” decided by the Supreme Court?

    1. Salebhai Mulla Mohmadali vs. State of Gujarat.

    2. T. N. Godavarman Tirumulkpad vs. Union of India.

    3. Narmada Bachao Andolan vs. Union of India.

    4. Samatha vs. State of Andhra Pradesh.

    Answer: b

  35. The Parliament enacted the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 for the control of water pollution:

    1. On the request from States.

    2. Of his own.

    3. On the direction of United Nations.

    4. On the direction of Supreme Court.

    Answer: a

  36. Under which of the following Articleof the Constitution of India, theprovisions regarding duty of the State “to protect and improvement of environment and safeguard the forest and wildlife” exist?

    1. Article 51 (g)

    2. Article 47

    3. Article 48 − A

    4. None of the above

    Answer: c

    • Assertion (A): Under International law extradition is mostly a matter of bilateral treaties.
    • Reason (R): There is no general duty of States in respect of extradition of criminals.
    1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of (A).

    2. Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).

    3. A is true, but R is false.

    4. A is false, but R is true.

    Answer: b

  37. Which of the following case does not concern with the judgement that a non-recognized State cannot sue in the courts of the State which was not recognized?

    1. Russian Socialist Federated Soviet Republic vs. Cibraria.

    2. Guarantee Trust Company of New York vs. United States.

    3. U. S. Vs. Pink.

    4. Bank of Ethiopia vs. National Bank of Egypt and Liquori.

    Answer: d

  38. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:

    List-I (Name of the Case) List-II (Principle Propounded)
    1. The Caroline case

    2. The Nottebohm case

    3. Re Castioni case

    4. US vs. Rouscher

    1. Self-Defence

    2. Effective Nationality

    3. Non-Extradition of Political Criminals

    4. Rule of Specialty

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
      • 1
      • 2
      • 3
      • 4
      • 4
      • 3
      • 2
      • 1
      • 3
      • 4
      • 1
      • 2
      • 2
      • 1
      • 4
      • 3

    Answer: a

  39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:

    List-I List-II
    1. Australia and Prussiaexercised jontsovereignty over

    2. Great Britain and France exercised joint sovereignty over

    3. Great Britain exercised sovereignty over

    4. In 1898 China leased the district of Kiaochow to

    1. New Helarides

    2. Schleswig Holstein Anenburg

    3. Germany

    4. Turkish Island

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
      • 2
      • 1
      • 4
      • 3
      • 1
      • 2
      • 3
      • 4
      • 4
      • 3
      • 2
      • 1
      • 3
      • 4
      • 1
      • 2

    Answer: a

  40. Which of the following statements is correct? A de-facto government is government:

    1. Whose origin and existence is contrary to the Constitutional law of the State concerned and legality is challenged in International law.

    2. Whose origin and existence is in conformity with the Constitutional law of the State represented and whose legality is uncontested in International law.

    3. Which exercise control over a Foreign State?

    4. Which has been forced to leave the territory of its State due to enemy occupation or civil war?

    Answer: a

  41. Under which of the following Article of the U. N. Charter there is an obligation to inform the Security Council if the regional arrangements take any enforcement action for maintenance of peace and security?

    1. Article 51

    2. Article 54

    3. Article 107

    4. Article 108

    Answer: b

  42. In which one of the following cases the permanent court of International justice held, “it is a generally acceptable principle of international law that in relations, between powers, who are contracting parties to a treaty, the provisions of the municipal law cannot prevail over the treaty”

    1. Navlilaa Incident Case

    2. Greco, Bulgarian Communities Case.

    3. Panevezys Saldutiskis Railway Case

    4. Polish Postal Service Case

    Answer: b

  43. The wife's sister's daughter's son can be adopted. The adoption is

    1. Void

    2. Valid

    3. Voidable

    4. None of the above

    Answer: b

  44. Kritrima Adoption is prevalent in which areas of India?

    1. Madras

    2. Banaras

    3. Avadh

    4. Mithila

    Answer: d

  45. In which case the Supreme Court held that “Cohabitation leads to presumption that person are living as husband and wife”

    1. Balasubramaniyam vs. Suruttayan AIR 1992 SC 756

    2. Seema vs. Ashwin Kumar AIR 2006 SC 1158

    3. Vishnu Prakash vs. Sheela Devi (2001) 4 SCC 729

    4. None of the above:

    Answer: a

  46. In which of the case, the Supreme Court held that it is desirable that “all marriages should be Compulsorily Registered in the State, where they are solemnized”

    1. S. Nagalingamvs. Sivagani AIR (2001) SC 3576

    2. Shanti Dev Berma vs. K. P. Devi AIR (1991) SC 816

    3. SeemaVs Ashwin Kumar AIR 2006 SC 1158

    4. None of the above

    Answer: c

  47. Rules relating to prohibited degrees are based on the principle of

    1. Monogamy

    2. Polygamy

    3. Exogamy

    4. Endogamy

    Answer: c

  48. In Islamic Law, marriage is both ‘Ibadt’ and ‘Mammulat’ Who said this?

    1. Amir Ali Justice

    2. Dr. Fayzee

    3. Abdur-Rahim

    4. Mahmood Justice

    Answer: c

  49. A Muslim husband can delegate his right of Talaq to

    1. Any other person

    2. Wife only

    3. Both A and (B)

    4. None of the above

    Answer: c

  50. A Muslim minor wife can cease her right to repudiate the marriage in case:

    1. When she attained the age of puberty.

    2. When the marriage was consummated before attaining the age of puberty.

    3. When she is less than 18 years of age.

    4. None of the above:

    Answer: b

  51. Find correct answer using codes given below: Following are main approaches to explain nature and meaning of human rights:

    1. The scientific right theory

    2. The moral right theory

    3. The natural right theory

    4. The legal right theory

    Codes:

    1. 1 and 2 are correct.

    2. 2 and 3 are correct.

    3. 3 and 4 are correct.

    4. 4 and 1 are correct.

    Answer: c

    • Assertion (A): The purpose of Human Rights is to provide protection against the abuse of power committed by the organs of State.
    • Reason (R): Due to absence of Lok Pal the misuse of power by the State cannot be effectively checked.
    1. A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of (A).

    2. A and R are correct, but R is not correct explanation of (A).

    3. A is true and R is false.

    4. A is false and R is true.

    Answer: b

  52. Match item in Table-A with items in Table-B using codes given below: Table – A Table – B

    List-I List-II
    1. The first generation of Human Rights

    2. The second generation of Human Rights

    3. The third generation of Human Rights

    4. Theoretical approach to Human Rights

    1. Idealistic Theory of Law

    2. Collective Rights

    3. Civil and Political Rights

    4. Economic, Social and Cultural Rights

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
      • 1
      • 3
      • 2
      • 4
      • 3
      • 4
      • 2
      • 1
      • 4
      • 3
      • 2
      • 1
      • 3
      • 4
      • 1
      • 2

    Answer: b

  53. In Indian Constitution, Civil and Political Rights given in its

    1. Part II

    2. Part III

    3. Part IV

    4. Part IX

    Answer: b

  54. “No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile.” Above law is in

    1. Article 21 of the Indan Constitution

    2. Criminal Procedure Code

    3. Civil Procedure Code

    4. Article 9 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights

    Answer: d

    • Assertion (A): Advancement of rights of women has been the concern of world community since the end of Second World War.
    • Reason (R): In Second World War, population of men was significantly decreased.
    1. A and R are true and R is correct explanation of (A).

    2. A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation of (A).

    3. A is true and R is false.

    4. A is false, but R is true.

    Answer: b

    • Assertion (A): The child must be given the means requisite for his normal development, both materially and spiritually.
    • Reason (R): Spirituality is material and material is spiritual.
    1. A and R are true and R is correct explanation of (A).

    2. A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation of (A).

    3. A is true, but R is false.

    4. A is false, but R is true.

    Answer: c

  55. State which of the following statements is incorrect?

    1. Liability in tort arises from breach of duty primarily fixed by law.

    2. The duty, breach of which results in tortious liability, is towards the public generally.

    3. The duty, breach of which results in liability in tort, is towards some person in particular.

    4. The breach of duty, which results in liability in tort, is redressable by an action for unliquidated damages.

    Answer: d

  56. The plaintiff was watching a cricket match at a stadium organized by the Cricket Club of India. He wasseriously injured by a mighty hitfrom the batsman. In this case, whois liable to pay the damages to the plaintiff?

    1. The Batsman

    2. The Cricket Club of India

    3. Both A and B above

    4. None of the above

    Answer: d

  57. Which one of the following sets correctly identifies the specific defence available in an action for defamation?

    1. Privilege, Truth, Fair comment.

    2. Privilege, Mistake, Fair comment.

    3. Truth, Mistake, Fair comment.

    4. Truth, Privilege, Mistake.

    Answer: a

    • Assertion (A): Pleading lack of intention to defame someone does not absolve one from liability for defamation.
    • Reason (R): The essence of defamation lies in the lowering a person in the estimation of the right thinking members of the society, even without intention.
    1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (A).

    2. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of (A).

    3. A is true, but R is false.

    4. A is false, but R is true.

    Answer: d

    • Assertion (A): In India, defendants collecting water in reservoirs have not been held liable for damage caused due to the escape of water from these reservoirs in absence of negligence.
    • Reason (R): The rule of strict liability laid down in Rylands vs. Fletcher case has been held to be not applicable in India.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below; Codes:

    1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (A).

    2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).

    3. A is true, but R is false.

    4. A is false, but R is true.

    Answer: a

    • Assertion (A): In tort of nuisance, interference by the defendant may cause damage to the plaintiff's property or personal discomfort in the enjoyment of property.
    • Reason (R): Every interference in the use of property is a nuisance.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Codes:

    1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of (A).

    2. Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).

    3. A is true, but R is false.

    4. A is false, but R is true.

    Answer: c

  58. Match List-I with List-II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below:

    List-I List-II
    1. Composition of the District Forum

    2. Complaint to be accompanied by court fee

    3. Jurisdiction of the State Commission

    4. Appeals from National Commission to the Supreme Court

    1. Section 10, C. P. Act

    2. Section 17, C. P. Act

    3. Section 23, C. P. Act

    4. Section 12 (2) C. P. Act

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
      • 1
      • 2
      • 3
      • 4
      • 1
      • 4
      • 2
      • 3
      • 2
      • 4
      • 1
      • 3
      • 4
      • 3
      • 2
      • 1

    Answer: b

  59. Find correct legal principle from following statements:

    1. A company may do an act which is necessary for or incidental to the attainment of its objects or which is otherwise not authorized by the Act.

    2. A company may not do an act which is necessary for or incidental to the attainment of its objects which is otherwise not authorized by the Act.

    3. A company may do an act which is necessary for or incidental to the attainment ofits objects or which is otherwise authorized by the Act.

    4. A company may do an act which is unnecessary for or not incidental to attainment of its goals or which is otherwise barred by the Act.

    Answer: c

  60. Match items from Table-A with items in Table-B, using codes given below: Table – A Table – B

    List-I List-II
    1. Lakshmi Ratan Cotton Mills vs. J. K. Jute Mills Co. AIR1957 AII 311

    2. Automatic Self-cleansing Filter Syndicate Co. Ltd. Vs. Cuninghame (1906), 2 Ch. 34

    3. G Ramesh vs. ROC (2007), 135 Comp Cas 655

    4. City Equitable Fire Insurance Company, Re (1924), AII E Rep 485

    1. Director's duty of care, diligence and skill

    2. Statutory protection to Directors against liability

    3. Powers of Directors

    4. Scope of authority of Directors

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
      • 4
      • 3
      • 2
      • 1
      • 3
      • 2
      • 1
      • 4
      • 2
      • 1
      • 4
      • 3
      • 1
      • 4
      • 3
      • 2

    Answer: a

    • Assertion (A): A contract of sale may be absolute or conditional.
    • Reason (R): There is no absolute condition for a contract of sale.
    1. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of (A).

    2. Both A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation of (A).

    3. A is true, but R is false.

    4. A is false, but R is true.

    Answer: c

  61. “Where under a contract of sale the property in the goods is transferred from the seller to the buyer, the contract is called a sale, but where the transfer of the property in the goods is to take place at a future time or subject to some condition thereafter to be fulfilled, the contract is called an agreement to sell.”

Read above statement and find correct answer, using codes given below:

Codes:

(A) Contract of sale is conditional.

(B) Contract of agreement to sell is conditional.

(C) There is no difference between sale and agreement to sell, as both are contracts.

(D) Sale is a contract; agreement to sell is not a contract.

Answer: b

  1. Essential feature of a partnership is

    1. Agreement

    2. Object to carry on a business

    3. To share profits

    4. Business is to be carried by all or any of them acting for all.

    Codes:

    1. Only 1 is correct.

    2. Only 1 and 2 are correct.

    3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

    4. All of above are correct

    Answer: d

  2. Find the correct legal statement from following statements:

    1. Every partner is liable, severally with all the other partners and jointly for all acts of the firm done while he is a partner.

    2. Every partner is liable, jointly with all the other partners and severally for all acts of the firm done while he is a partner.

    3. Every partner is liable only foracts done by him as acts of thefirm done while he is a partner.

    4. Sleeping partner is not liable for acts done by him as acts of the firm done while he is a partner.

    Answer: b

    • Assertion (A): It is the duty of the banker to be acquainted with the customer's handwriting.
    • Reason (R): A banker must be hand writing expert.
    1. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of (A).

    2. Both A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation of (A).

    3. A is true, but R is false.

    4. A is false, but R is true.

    Answer: c

  3. When a negotiable instrument is dishonored, the party liable to pay, becomes bound to pay compensation to

    1. The bank

    2. The endorser

    3. Holder or endorsee

    4. The Court

    Answer: c