CBSE NET Social-Medicine September-2013 Solved Paper III

  1. Ideal temperature for storage of DPT vaccine at PHC level is (A) 0° C (B) 2 to 8° C (C) Room temperature (D) –20° C

    Answer: b

  2. The drug of choice for chemo prophylaxis in Meningococcal Meningitis is

    1. Erythromycin

    2. Streptomycin

    3. Rifampicin

    4. Tetracycline

  3. Most of the ElTor vibrios isolated in India belong to the

    1. Inaba serotype

    2. Ogawa serotype

    3. Hitojima serotype

    4. NAG serotype

    Answer: b

  4. Antibiotic of choice for treating cholera in adults except in pregnant women is

    1. Single dose of doxycycline 300 mg

    2. Tetracycline 500 mg 4 times a day and 3 days

    3. Furazolidone 100 mg 4 times a day and 3 days

    4. Trimethoprim (160 mg) + sulfamethoxazole (800 mg) twice a day × (multi-symbol) 3 days

  5. Sample registration system was initiated to provide

    1. Reliable estimates of birth and death rates at National and State levels

    2. Reliable estimates of population size

    3. Reliable estimates of morbidity pattern

    4. Reliable cause of death at National and State level

    Answer: a

  6. The commonest side effect of IUCD is

    1. Pain

    2. Pelvic infections

    3. Uterine perforation

    4. Increased vaginal bleeding

    Answer: d

  7. The cut off point for blood lead level above which clinical symptoms appear is

    1. 20 μg/100 ml

    2. 50 μg/100 ml

    3. 70 μg/100 ml

    4. 100 μg/100 ml

    Answer: c

  8. The incubation period of tetanus is usually

    1. 2 to 5 days

    2. 6 to 10 days

    3. 12 to 15 days

    4. 15 to 20 days

    Answer: b

  9. The additional daily calorie requirement during pregnancy is

    1. 300 Kcals

    2. 400 Kcals

    3. 500 Kcals

    4. 550 Kcals

  10. As per the Central Births and Deaths Registration Act 1969, the time limit for registration of births without fine is

    1. 10 days

    2. 14 days

    3. 20 days

    4. 28 days

  11. The Dosage of Fenthion used as Larvcide in mosquito control is

    1. 1 to 2 g/hectare

    2. 2 to 20 g/hectare

    3. 224 to 672 g/hectare

    4. 22 to 112 g/hectare

    Answer: d

  12. Daily requirement of vitamin C for an adult is

    1. 20 mg

    2. 40 mg

    3. 60 mg

    4. 80 mg

    Answer: b

  13. Gomez classification of PEM is based on

    1. weight for age

    2. weight for height

    3. height for age

    4. mid arm circumference

    Answer: a

  14. The life cycle of Malarial parasites in man may be described as

    1. Propagative

    2. Cyclo-propagative

    3. Cyclo-developmental

    4. A sexual cycle

    Answer: d

  15. Trypsin inhibitor is present in

    1. Hen egg

    2. Duck egg

    3. Milk

    4. Fish

    Answer: b

  16. What is the population norm for mini-Anganwadi centre in a tribal/desert/riverine/hilly and other difficult areas?

    1. 150 – 300

    2. 300 – 400

    3. 100 – 200

    4. 150 – 250

    Answer: a

  17. Which of the following diseases is found in India?

    1. West Nile fever

    2. Murray valley encephalitis

    3. Yellow fever

    4. Colorado tick fever

    Answer: a

  18. Net Protein Utilization (NPU) is estimated from

    1. Biological value alone

    2. Biological value and protein efficiency ratio

    3. Biological value and digestibility coefficient

    4. Protein efficiency ratio alone

    Answer: c

  19. Sick New Born Care Units (SNCUS) are established at which of the following facilities?

    1. First Referral unit

    2. District Hospital

    3. Community Health Centre

    4. Medical College

    Answer: b

  20. A corrected effective temperature of how many degree Celsius is considered comfortable in India?

    1. 20° C – 30° C

    2. 20° C – 25° C

    3. 27° C – 30° C

    4. 25° C – 27° C

    Answer: d

  21. The cut off point for diagnosis of anaemia in children aged 6 − 14 years as recommended by WHO Expert Group is

    1. 13.8 g/dl haemoglobin

    2. 11.5 g/dl haemoglobin

    3. 12 g/dl haemoglobin

    4. 10 g/dl haemoglobin

    Answer: c

  22. Under the Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme monthly pension is given to

    1. People aged more than 60 years and who are below poverty line

    2. People aged more than 65 years and who are below poverty line

    3. People aged more than 62 years and who are below poverty line

    4. Destitute elderly

    Answer: b

  23. Which of the following methods is used to remove the permanent hardness of water?

    1. Boiling

    2. Adding lime

    3. Permutit process

    4. Adding sodium carbonate

    Answer: d

  24. Supplementary nutrition given to children, aged 6 − 72 months who are severely malnourished under ICDS is

    1. 800 calories and 20 − 25 gm protein everyday

    2. 500 calories and 15 − 20 gm protein everyday

    3. 1000 calories and 20 − 25 gm protein everyday

    4. 600 calories and 15 − 20 gm protein everyday

    Answer: a

  25. ‘Ujjawala’ is a comprehensive scheme launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development to combat

    1. Child labour

    2. Child abuse

    3. Child trafficking

    4. Juvenile Delinquency

    Answer: c

  26. Under the ‘Nutrition Programme for Adolescent Girls’ the nutrition provided to each beneficiary is

    1. 600 calories through food per day

    2. 6 kg of free food grain per month

    3. Rs. 6 for buying food per day

    4. 6 gm proteins through food per day

    Answer: b

  27. Pasteurization of milk effectively kills all the following except:

    1. fever organisms

    2. Tubercle bacilli

    3. Salmonella

    4. Bacterial spores

    Answer: d

  28. Abdominal fat accumulation is indicated by waist hip ratio of

    1. more than 1.0 in men and more than 0.85 in women

    2. more than 0.85 in men and more than 0.5 in women

    3. more than 1.0 in men and more than 1.0 in women

    4. more than 1.5 in men and more than 0.85 in women

    Answer: a

  29. The only cancer in which some cases show spontaneous regression without treatment is

    1. Cancer breast

    2. Lung cancer

    3. Cancer cervix

    4. Oral cancer

    Answer: c

  30. The minimum number of antenatal visits recommended for a pregnant woman in India is

    1. 2

    2. 4

    3. 3

    4. 6

    Answer: b

  31. Which indicator is included in Human development index?

    1. Infant mortality rate

    2. Maternal mortality rate

    3. Life expectancy at birth

    4. Proportion of immunized children

    Answer: c

  32. Factories Act apples to whole of India except

    1. Andhra Pradesh

    2. Jammu and Kashmir

    3. Himachal Pradesh

    4. Tamil Nadu

    Answer: b

  33. In a mosquito, period between a blood meal until eggs are laid is called

    1. Serial interval

    2. Genotrophic cycle

    3. Extrinsic incubation period

    4. Generation time

    Answer: b

  34. Source reduction in mosquito control comprises of

    1. Genetic engineering techniques

    2. Personal protection against bites

    3. Space sprays

    4. Minor engineering methods

    Answer: d

  35. Highest permissible level of chlorine in drinking water is

    1. 5 mg/lit

    2. 75 mg/lit

    3. 125 mg/lit

    4. 200 mg/lit

  36. Waste water from kitchen is called

    1. Refuse

    2. Sullage

    3. Garbage

    4. Sewage

    Answer: b

  37. The disinfecting action of chlorine is mainly due to which molecule?

    1. Chlorine

    2. Hypochlorine

    3. Hydrogen

    4. Hypochlorous

    Answer: d

  38. Which one is the most important single determinant of Infant mortality?

    1. Mother's age

    2. Family size

    3. Order of birth

    4. Birth weight

    Answer: d

  39. Residual action of HCH lasts for

    1. 1 month

    2. 3 months

    3. 10 months

    4. 12 months

    Answer: b

  40. For every case of paralytic poliomyelitis the estimated no. Of subclinical cases are

    1. 10

    2. 100

    3. 400

    4. 1000

    Answer: d

  41. DEC has no effect against

    1. Microfilaria

    2. Adult worm

    3. 2nd stage larva

    4. Infective stage larva

  42. The commonest opportunistic infection associated with HIV in India is

    1. Cryptosporidiosis

    2. Herpes simplex

    3. Tuberculosis

    4. Pneumocystis pneumonia

    Answer: c

  43. The daily requirement of Iodine in adult male

    1. 10 μ gm/day

    2. 50 μ gm/day

    3. 100 μ gm/day

    4. 150 μ gm/day

    Answer: d

  44. Primary health care concept was formed by Alma ata Conference in

    1. 1950

    2. 1970

    3. 1978

    4. 1998

    Answer: c

  45. The incidence of Hydatid disease is highest in

    1. Northern India

    2. Eastern India

    3. Southern India

    4. Western India

    Answer: c

  46. Specificity of a test refers to its ability to detect

    1. True positive

    2. False positive

    3. True negative

    4. False negative

    Answer: c

  47. The Body Mass Index (BMI) for a normal adult is

    1. 13.5 – 17.99

    2. 18.5 – 24.99

    3. 25.5 – 30.99

    4. 31.5 – 35.99

    Answer: b

  48. The most common site of cancer in males in India is

    1. Lung

    2. Prostate

    3. Oro-pharynx

    4. Esophagus

    Answer: a

  49. The non-modifiable risk factor for hypertension is

    1. Obesity

    2. Stress

    3. Salt intake

    4. Age

    Answer: d

  50. A case of acute flaccid paralysis must be observed for how many days for residual paralysis after onset of paralysis?

    1. 15 days

    2. 30 days

    3. 45 days

    4. 60 days

    Answer: d

  51. Fast breathing in a two years old child is recognised at

    1. ≥ 60 breaths

    2. ≥ 50 breaths

    3. ≥ 40 breaths

    4. ≥ 30 breaths

    Answer: c

  52. Yellow fever is absent in India because

    1. Climatic conditions are not favourable

    2. Virus is not present

    3. Vector mosquito is absent

    4. Population is immune to the disease

    Answer: b

  53. Statistical power of a study is related to

    1. α error

    2. β error

    3. systematic error

    4. γ error

    Answer: b

  54. In estimation of statistical probability, Z score is applicable to

    1. Normal distribution

    2. Skewed distribution

    3. Binomial distribution

    4. Poisson distribution

    Answer: a

  55. There are no subclinical cases in which of the following infectious diseases?

    1. Measles

    2. Poliomyelitis

    3. Cholera

    4. Diphtheria

    Answer: a

  56. Number of live births per thousand women in the reproductive age group in a given year is known as

    1. General Fertility Rate (GFR)

    2. Total Fertility Rate (TFR)

    3. Gross Reproduction Rate (GRR)

    4. Net Reproduction Rate (NRR)

    Answer: a

  57. If the prevalence is very low as compared to the incidence of a disease, it implies

    1. The disease has low mortality.

    2. The disease is very fatal and/easily curable

    3. The disease has a long latent period

    4. The disease has a short latent period

    Answer: b

  58. Living standard of people is best assessed by

    1. Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)

    2. Maternal Mortalty Rate (MMR)

    3. Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI)

    4. Perinatal Mortality Rate (PNMR)

  59. External validity of a study indicates

    1. Reproducibility

    2. Credibility

    3. Generalizability

    4. Compatability

    Answer: c

  60. Odds ratio for estimation of strength of association is calculated in

    1. Cross sectional study

    2. Cohort study

    3. Intervential study

    4. Case-control study

    Answer: d

  61. Sullivan's index indicates

    1. Life free disability

    2. Pregnancy rate per Hundred Women Years (HWY)

    3. Hook worm eggs/gm of stool

    4. Standard of living

    Answer: a

  62. Most difficult criterion to establish causal association in etiology of disease is

    1. Temporality

    2. Strength of association

    3. Specificity of association

    4. Biological plausibility

    Answer: c

  63. Population growth rate is rated to be explosive if the annual growth rate exceeds

    1. 0.5%

    2. 1.0%

    3. 1.5%

    4. 2.0%

    Answer: d

  64. When was the Health Policy first formulation in India?

    1. 1983

    2. 1993

    3. 1973

    4. 2003

    Answer: a

  65. During which Five Year Plan Family Planning Programme was renamed as Family Welfare Programme?

    1. Second

    2. Third

    3. Fourth

    4. Fifth Five Year Plan

    Answer: d

  66. Which of the following indirect causes contribute most for maternal mortality in India?

    1. Anaemia

    2. Pregnancy with T. B.

    3. Pregnancy with Malaria

    4. Pregnancy with Hepatitis

    Answer: a

  67. Care at birth requires five cleans. Which of the following is not among them?

    1. Clean hands

    2. Clean cord tie

    3. Clean water tap

    4. Clean razor blade

    Answer: c

  68. Which of the following institutions is responsible for issues pertaining to health education?

    1. ICMR

    2. CBHI

    3. CHEB

    4. NIMS

    Answer: c

  69. Which of the following States in India ranks poorest in nutritional status of children below 5 years of age?

    1. Chhatisgarh

    2. Orissa

    3. Uttarakhand

    4. Jharkhand

    Answer: d

  70. Under ICDS which of the following services are not delivered through the Anganwadi centre?

    1. Sports training to children below 5 years

    2. Growth monitoring

    3. Nutritional supplement

    4. Pre-school education

    Answer: a

  71. National Malaria Control Programme was rechristened as National Malaria Eradication Program in 1958. When was the National Anti-Malaria Programme introduced?

    1. 1979

    2. 1999

    3. 1989

    4. 2009

    Answer: b

  72. Which of the followng is not a norm for the delivery of health and family welfare services to rural community in the hilly regions?

    1. One CHC per 80, 000 persons

    2. One sub-centre per 3000 persons

    3. One PHC per 20000 persons

    4. One ASHA per 1000 persons

    Answer: d

  73. Adolescent age starts from according to WHO

    1. 9 years

    2. 10 years

    3. 14 years

    4. 15 years

    Answer: b

  74. Lathyrism affects one of the following system:

    1. Gastro intestinal system

    2. Renal system

    3. Cardio vascular system

    4. Central nervous system

    Answer: d

  75. Commonly affected site of occupational cancer is

    1. Tongue

    2. Cervix

    3. Skin

    4. Brain

    Answer: c