NEET PG Memory Based Sample Questions Set 32 for 2016

1. A 50-year-old lady presented with a 3 moth history of pain in the lower third of the right thigh. There was no local swelling; tenderness was present on deep pressure. Plain X-rays showed an ill-defined intra medullary lesion with blotchy calcification at the lower end of the right femoral diaphysis, possibly enchondroma or chondrosarcoma. Sections showed a cartilaginous tumour. Which of the following histological features (if seen) would be helpful to differentiate the two tumours?

a. Focal necrosis and lobulation

b. Tumour permeationbetween bone trabeculae at periphery.

c. Extensive myxoid change

d. High cellularity

Answer: b

2. The differential diagnoses of lesion, histologically resembling giant cell tumour in the small bones of the hands or feet, includes all of the follwing except:

a. Aneurysmal bone cyst

b. Fibrosarcoma

c. Osteosarcoma

d. Hyperparathyroidism

3. As regards to intraocular retinoblastoma, which one of the following statements is false?

a. 94% of cases are sporadic

b. Patients with sporadic retinoblastoma do not pass their genes to their offsprings.

c. Calcificatinin thetumor can be detected on ultrasound scan

d. Presence of extraocular extension

4. Which of the following is not of prognostic significance in choroidal melanoma?

a. Presence of retinal detachment

b. Size of the tumor

c. Cytology of the tumor cells

d. Presence of extraocular extension

Answer: c

5. Which of the following hemoglobin (Hb) estimation will be diagnostically helpful ina case of beta thalassemia trait?

a. Hb-F

b. Hb-A1C

c. Hb-A2

d. Hb-H

Answer: d

6. Appropriate material for antenatal diagnosis of genetic disorders include all of the following except:

a. Fetal blood

b. Amniotic fluid

c. Chorionic villi.

d. Maternal urine.

Answer: b

7. Which of the following statements about carcinogenesis is false?

a. Asbestos exposure increases the incidence of lung cancer

b. Papilloma viruses produce tumours in animals but not in humans

c. Exposure to aniline dyes predisposes to cancer of the urinary bladder.

d. Hepatitis B virus has been implicated in hepatocellular carcinoma

Answer: c

8. Which of the following is an example of disorders of sex chromosomes?

a. Marfan’s syndrome

b. Testicular feminization syndrome

c. Klinefelter’s syndrome

d. Down’s syndrome

Answer: d

9. Which of the following statements on lymphoma is not true?

a. A single classification system for Hodgkin’s disease (HD) is almost universally accepted

b. HD more often tends to remain localized to a single group of lymph nodes and spreads by contiguity

c. Several types of non hodgkins lymphoma (NHL) may have a leukemic phase.

d. In general, follicular (nodular) NHL has worse prognosis compared to diffuse NHL.

Answer: c

10. Which of the following is characteristically not associated with the development of interstitial lung disease?

a. Organic dusts

b. Inorganic dusts

c. Toxic gases e.g. chlorine, sulphur dioxide

d. Inhalation of tobacco smoke

Answer: c

11. A peripheral smear with increased neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and platelets is highly suggestive of:

a. Acute myeloid leukemia

b. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

c. Chronic myelogenous leukemia

d. Myelodysplastic syndrome

Answer: b

12. A patient presents with a platelet count of 700 × 109/L with abnormalities in size, shape and granularity of platelets. WBC count of 12 × 109/L, hemoglobin of 11g/dl and the absence of the Philadelphia chromosome. The most likely diagnosis would be :

a. Polycythemia vera

b. Essential thrombocythemia

c. Chronic myeloid leukemia

d. Leukemoid reaction.

Answer: b

13. A 70-year-old male has a pathologic fracture of femur. The lesion appears lytic on X-ray film with a circumscribed punched out appearance. The curetting from fracture site is most likely to show which of the following?

a. Diminished and thinned trabecular bone fragments secondary to osteopenia

b. Sheets of atypical plasma cells.

c. Metastatic prostatic adenocarcinoma

d. Malignant cells forming osteoid bone

Answer: b

14. Which of the following is not a B-cell neoplasm?

a. Hairy cell leukemia.

b. Angiocentric lymphoma

c. Mantle cell lymphoma

d. Burkitt’s lymphoma

Answer: a

15. RET proto oncogene mutation is a hall mark of which of the following tumors?

a. Midullary carcinoma Thyroid.

b. Astrocytoma

c. Paraganglionoma

d. Hurthle cell tumor thyroid

Answer: a

16. Barrets Esophagus is commonly associated with one of the following:

a. Adenocarcinoma

b. Squamous cell carcinoma

c. Sarcoma

d. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor

17. Anticoagulant effect of warfarin is increased by all of the following except:

a. Cimetidine

b. Phytonadione

c. Amiodarone

d. Phenylbutazone

Answer: d

18. Which of the following fluorinated anaesthetics corrodes metal in vaporizers and breathing systems?

a. Sevoflurane

b. Enflurance

c. Isoflurane

d. Halothane.

Answer: b

19. The following anesthetic drug cause pain on intravenous administration :

a. Midazolam

b. Propofol

c. Ketamine

d. Thiopentone sodium

Answer: d

20. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in a patient with raised intracranial pressure?

a. Thiopentone

b. Propofol

c. Midazolam

d. Ketamine

Answer: d

21. Which of the following drugs is associated with untoward side effect of renal tubular damage?

a. Cisplatin

b. Streptozotocin

c. Methysergide

d. Cyclophosphamide

Answer: a

22. The drug imatinib acts by inhibition of

a. Tyrosine kinase

b. Glutathione reductase

c. Thymidile synthetase

d. Protein kinase

Answer: b

23. Which one of the following is an aromatase inhibitor?

a. Tamoxifen

b. Letrozole

c. Danazol

d. Taxane

24. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is associated with secondary leukemia?

a. Vinblastine

b. Etoposide

c. Cisplatin

d. Bleomycin

Answer: d

25. Inhaled nitric oxide is used

a. For stabilizing systemic heamodynamics

b. In case of jaundice

c. To prevent CNS complication

d. For reducing pulmonary hypertension

Answer: a