Competitive Exams: Botany MCQs (Practice-Test 29 of 104)

  1. In gametophyte self-incompatibility (GSI), rejection reaction takes place in

    1. Stigma

    2. Style

    3. Ovary

    4. Embryo sac

  2. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

    List-I (Name of Institute) List-II (Place where located)
    1. International Plant Genetic Resources Institute

    2. International Rice Research Institute

    3. International Wheat and Maize

    4. Improvement Centre

    1. Italy

    2. Mexico

    3. Philippines

    • A
    • B
    • C
      • 1
      • 2
      • 3
      • 2
      • 1
      • 3
      • 1
      • 3
      • 2
      • 3
      • 2
      • 1
  3. Selectable marker that provides resistance to the antibiotic kanamycin is

    1. Gentamycin acetyltransferase

    2. Hygromycin phosphotransferase (hpt)

    3. Streptomycin phosphotransferase

    4. Neomycin phosphotransferase (npt 11)

  4. Satellite DNA consists of

    1. Extra chromosomal DNA

    2. Shorter repetitive nucleotide sequences

    3. Ribosomal RNA genes

    4. Single gene regions

  5. Certain yeast mutants have petite mitochondria, and they obviously lack

    1. Ability to generate alcohol from glucose

    2. Capacity to synthesize fats

    3. Ability to form ATP by oxidative phosphorylation

    4. Enzyme which phosphorylates glucose

  6. In plant cell walls, the tensile strength of the walls is provided by

    1. Cellulose

    2. Lignin

    3. Pectin

    4. Extensin

  7. Among angiosperm plants, the lowest chromosome & number is found in

    1. Haplopappus gracilis

    2. Crepis capillaris

    3. Arabidopsis thaliana

    4. Oenothera lamarckiana

  8. Triticum aestivum, a common wheat is

    1. Autopolyploid

    2. Auto diploid

    3. Allotetraploid

    4. Allohexaploid

  9. Mutations which do not cause any functional change in the protein are called as

    1. Non-sense mutations

    2. Mis-sense mutations

    3. Backward mutations

    4. Silent mutations

  10. A change in DNA that creates UAA codon at a site previously occupied by another codon, would result in one of the following mutations:

    1. Amber

    2. Ochre

    3. Opal

    4. Polar

  11. pBR 322 which is frequently used as a vector for cloning gene in E. Coli is

    1. An original bacterial plasmid

    2. A modified bacterial plasmid

    3. A viral genome

    4. A transposon

  12. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

    List-I (Enzymes) List-II (Characteristic Activity)
    1. Terminal transferees

    2. Polynucleotide kinesis

    3. Taq DNA polymerases

    4. Exonucleases

    1. Stable above 90 degrees C

    2. Cleave the ends of linear DNA

    3. Adds phosphate to 5 OH end of DNA or RNA

    4. Adds a number of nucleotides to 3' end of DNA or RNA

    5. Regulate the level of super coiling of DNA molecule

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
      • 5
      • 4
      • 1
      • 2
      • 4
      • 3
      • 1
      • 2
      • 3
      • 4
      • 5
      • 1
      • 4
      • 3
      • 2
      • 1
  13. Genes containing introns are called

    1. Silent genes

    2. Split genes

    3. Structural genes

    4. Psudogenes

  14. The coiling of chromatics during early prophase of Mitosis is termed as

    1. Somatic coiling

    2. Minor coiling

    3. Plectonemic coiling

    4. Par anemic coiling

  15. It is advantageous to use a vector having multiple cloning sites, as it

    1. Contains many copies of a cloned gene

    2. Contains many copies of the same restriction enzyme site

    3. Allows flexibility in the choice of restriction enzymes

    4. Allows flexibility in the choice of genes for cloning