Competitive Exams: Medical Science MCQs (Practice-Test 51 of 135)

  1. Consider the following statements regarding cirrhosis of liver:

    1. Morphological changes are periportal as opposed to centrilobular in cardiac cirrhosis.

    2. A wedged hepatic vein pressure greater than 44 mmHg above the inferior vena cava pressure suggests portal hypertension.

    3. Splenic size correlates very well with the level of portal pressure.

    4. Hyperaldosteronism occurs in those with ascites.

    Which of the above statements are correct?

    1. 2 and 3

    2. 2, 3 and 4

    3. 1, 2 and 4

    4. 1, 3 and 4

  2. Which one of the following statements regarding amoebic liver abscesses in NOT true?

    1. It is more common in males than females

    2. It is more common in left lobe of liver

    3. Metronidazole is the drug of choice

    4. Jaundice and splenic enlargement may be observed in big abscesses

  3. As regards peptic ulcer all the following statements are true EXCEPT:

    1. Major hormonal stimulus to gastric acid secretion after feeding is Gastrin 17 (G − 17) rather than Gastrin 34 (G − 34)

    2. More than 95 percent of duodenal ulcers occur in first portion of duodenum

    3. Majority of ulcers situated in gastric antrum are malignant

    4. Osteomalacia and osteoporosis may develop after partial gastrectomy

  4. Ultrasonographic diagnostic feature of chronic pyelonephritis is

    1. bilateral contracted kidneys

    2. bilateral cystic kidneys

    3. bilateral enlarged kidneys

    4. localized scarring with deformity of the adjacent calyces

  5. Consider the following statemtns regarding lepromatous leprosy:

    1. In patients with lepromatous leprosy, single nasal blow may contain upto 2 × 106 Mycobacterium leprae.

    2. Lepromin test is characteristically positive.

    3. Immune complex nephritis may develop.

    4. Keratitis is a frequent complication.

    Which of these statements are correct?

    1. 2 and 3

    2. 2, 3 and 4

    3. 1, 3 and 4

    4. 1, 2 and 4

  6. Consider the following statemtns regarding rheymatoid arthritis:

    1. Synovial fluid aspirate is cloudy and has poor mucin.

    2. Heberdens node may be observed.

    3. Pericardial fluid has low glucose and high LDH level.

    4. Mononeuritis multiplex may occur.

    Which of these statements is/are correct?

    1. 1 only

    2. 1, 3 and 4

    3. 2, 3 and 4

    4. 2 and 3

  7. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

    List-I (Complications) List-II (Oral hypoglycaemic agent)
    1. Lactic acidosis

    2. Hypoglycaemia

    3. Flatulence & diarrhoea

    4. Hepatic Dysfunction

    1. Thizolidinediones

    2. Alpha gencosidate inhibition

    3. Biguanides

    4. Sulphonyl ureas

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
      • 4
      • 3
      • 1
      • 2
      • 3
      • 4
      • 1
      • 2
      • 3
      • 4
      • 2
      • 1
      • 4
      • 3
      • 2
      • 1
  8. As regards poliomyelitis which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

    1. The risk of bulbar poliomyelitis is reduced by tonsillectomy

    2. In the early course of disease CSF may show mild polymorphonucleae cell pleocytosis

    3. Diffuse transient fasciculations may occur at the onset of the illness with muscle pain and cramp

    4. Polio virus belongs to picorna virus family

  9. Consider the following statemtns regarding Schizophrenia:

    1. It may be familial.

    2. If both parents are schizophrenic the risk to the child is above 90%

    3. the illness may resemble a severe and persistent neurosis

    4. It may occur in 0.2 to 0.5% of general population.

    Which of these statemtns are correct?

    1. 1, 3 and 4

    2. 2, 3 and 4

    3. 1, 2 and 3

    4. 2 and 4

  10. As regards meningitis, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

    1. In meningococcal meningitis morbilliform rash may occur

    2. Cranial nerve involvement is more frequent in tubercular meningitis

    3. Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion may occur

    4. In patients developing neurological sequelae CSF, LDH isoenzymes 1 and 2 rise sharply

  11. A patient has Glasgow coma Scale E3M2V5. The status means

    1. Well-oriented with spontaneous eye opening and abnormal flexion motor response

    2. Well-oriented with eye opening to painful stimuli and abnormal flexion motor response

    3. Well-oriented with eye opening to verbal commands and abnormal extension response

    4. Well-oriented with eye opening to painful stimuli and abnormal extension response

  12. In case of multiple trauma the peritoneal lavage for diagnosing intra-abdominal injuries is most helpful in

    1. All the patients

    2. Patients with altered level of consciousness

    3. Patients presenting with haematuria

    4. Patients with abdominal distension and guarding

  13. Which one set of the following is the correct sequence of fracture healing?

    1. Haematoma, loose connective tissue, granulation tissue, calcification and ossification

    2. Granulation tissue, loose connective tissue, haematoma, calcification and ossification

    3. Loose connective tissue, haematoma, granulation tissue, classification and ossification

    4. Haematoma, granulation tissue, loose connective tissue, calcification and ossification

  14. Which one of the following is considered to be early gastric cancer? when growth involves

    1. mucosa and muscular layers of the stomach

    2. mucosa, muscle and serosal layer

    3. mucosa and adjoining lymphnodes (N1)

    4. mucosa, muscular layers and adjoining lymphnodes (N1)

  15. The commonest side of birth fracture of femur is:

    1. Lower ⅓ of shaft

    2. Middle ⅓ of shaft

    3. Upper ⅓ of shaft

    4. Neck of femur