Competitive Exams: Zoology MCQs (Practice-Test 90 of 112)

  1. Portions of two epithelial cells of small intestine of a mammal are specially depicted highlighting the identifying features in the above structures marked A, B, C and D These structures may be

    1. Belt desmosome.

    2. Gap junction.

    3. Hemidesmosome.

    4. Spot desmosome.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    A B C D

    1. 1 2 3 4

    2. 2 3 4 1

    3. 1 4 2 3

    4. 4 3 2 1

  2. Cells that line the inner or outer surfaces of organs or body cavities are often linked together by intimate physical connections. These connections are referred to as

    1. Tight junctions

    2. Septate desmosomes

    3. Tonofilaments

    4. Fascia adherens

  3. Microtubules of centriole and blepharoplast contain at specific protein called

    1. Dyenin

    2. Tubulin

    3. Fertilizin

    4. Bendin

  4. The relationship between the concentration gradient and the resting membrane potential is given by

    1. Nernst equation

    2. Donnan equilibrium

    3. Michelis constant

    4. The equation p KD

  5. During cell division, DNA duplication occurs in

    1. Prophase

    2. G1-of interphase

    3. S-phase of interphase

    4. early telophase

  6. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer:

    List-I List-II
    1. Pairing of homologous chromosomes

    2. Actual interchange of segments between two homologous chromosomes

    3. Protein body formed between paired homologues

    4. The cross-shaped configuration visible at diplotene stage between homologues

    1. Chiasmata

    2. Synaptonemal complex

    3. Synapsis

    4. Crossing over

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
      • 4
      • 3
      • 1
      • 2
      • 3
      • 4
      • 1
      • 2
      • 3
      • 4
      • 2
      • 1
      • 4
      • 3
      • 2
      • 1
  7. What is the most important morphological peculiarity of polytene chromosomes of salivary gland cells of Drosophila?

    1. Size

    2. Length

    3. G-and P-Q. Rs. Band/interbands

    4. Easily observable features

  8. Match list-I (Syndrome) with list-II (Chromosomes) and select the correct answer:

    List-I List-II
    1. Down's syndrome

    2. Haemophilia

    3. Klinefelter's syndrome

    4. Turner's syndrome

    1. Lack of X-chromosome (XO)

    2. Addition of X-chromosome (XXY)

    3. Trisomy of a chromosome

    4. Recessive gene

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
      • 4
      • 3
      • 2
      • 1
      • 4
      • 3
      • 1
      • 2
      • 2
      • 4
      • 1
      • 3
      • 2
      • 4
      • 3
      • 1
  9. Match list-I (Structure) with list-II (Name) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

    List-I List-II
    1. Balbiani rings

    2. Thinner segment of the chromosome

    3. Non-condensed area of the chromosome

    4. Tips of chromosomes having distinct cytological properties

    1. Euchromatin

    2. Primary constriction

    3. Telomere

    4. Chromosome puff

    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
      • 4
      • 2
      • 3
      • 1
      • 2
      • 3
      • 1
      • 4
      • 4
      • 2
      • 1
      • 3
      • 2
      • 1
      • 4
      • 3
  10. At the height of the transcriptive activity, the DNA-protein complex is

    1. Completely unfolded without nucleosomal coiling

    2. partially unfolded removing only the HI histones

    3. Such that the nucleosomal folding is retained and the solenoid level of folding alone being removed

    4. Such that the octamers of nucleosome unfold leaving the attachment sites for

    DNA on core histones unchanged

  11. Mutation that arises from the insertion or the deletion of a single base causing the rest of the message downstream to be read out of phase is called

    1. frame shift mutation

    2. chemical mutation

    3. nonsense mutation

    4. supressor mutation

  12. The normal human female cells can be identified by the presence of

    1. microbody

    2. C-banding

    3. G-banding

    4. Barr body

  13. Premature onset of baldness is most often observed in young men, and very rarely so in women. This is so because the gene for such baldness is located on

    1. Y-chromosome

    2. X-chromosome, and its function is controlled by male sex-hormones

    3. authosomes and its function is controlled by male sex-hormones

    4. mitochondrial DNA, contributed by the father through his sperm

  14. During meiosis, chiasma are observed at pachytene. Presence of one chiasmata reduces the possibility of another occurring in the near vicinity. This phenomenon is called

    1. Interference

    2. position effect

    3. coupling and repulsion

    4. cis-trans effect

  15. Which, of the following statements furnish correct information about kappa particles of Paramecium?

    1. A kappa particle is a self-replicating cytoplasmic entity and. Is independent of nuclear control for its peretuation and function.

    2. Despite its cytoplasmic nature. the persistence of kappa depends at least on one nuclear gene

    3. Prior to conjugation, the introns of the nuclear DNA cleave off and achieve independent self-replication to become kappa particles

    4. The cytochrome pigments used by kappa are significantly different from those of its host, but similar to the cytochrome of certain bacteria.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    1. 1 and 3

    2. 2 and 4

    3. 2, 3 and 4

    4. 1, 3 and 4