Paper 3 has been removed from NET from 2018 (Notification)- now paper 2 and 3 syllabus is included in paper 2. Practice both paper 2 and 3 from past papers.

CBSE NET Geography paper 2 Sept 2016

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1. Paternoster lakes are features of

(1) Lava Plains

(2) Piedmonts

(3) Deserts

(4) Glacial troughs

2. Flat topped sea mounts are known as

(1) Banks

(2) Reefs

(3) Shoals

(4) Guyots

3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using codes given below.

Deposits vs. Processes
Match deposits and processes

List – I (Deposits)

List – II (Processes)

I. Loess

A. Fluvial

II. Moraines

B. Glacial

III. Gravels

C. Aeolian

IV. Silt

D. Marine

Q-3 Codes
Q-3 Codes

Codes:

I

II

III

IV

(1)

A

B

D

C

(2)

C

B

D

A

(3)

D

A

C

B

(4)

C

D

A

B

4. Slope replacement model was propounded by

(1) Wood

(2) Davis

(3) Penck

(4) Strahler

5. “The present is the key to the past.” This statement was made by

(1) John Playfair

(2) W.M. Davis

(3) Walther Penk

(4) James Hutton

6. Which one of the following statements, regarding the length of daylight between June 21st and September 22nd, over different regions is correct ?

(1) The length of the daylight is getting longer in the midlatitudes of Northern Hemisphere.

(2) The Southern Hemisphere is in the middle of summer.

(3) Day length is getting shorter in the midlatitudes of Southern Hemisphere.

(4) Day length is getting shorter in the midlatitudes of Northern Hemisphere.

7. V. Bjerkne’s model is related to

(1) Origin of Tropical Cyclones

(2) Origin of Monsoons

(3) Origin of Anticyclones

(4) Origin of mid-latitudinal Cyclones

8. What would be the angle of the sun above the horizon at noon on March 20th if you were standing on the Tropic of Cancer ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9. Which form of radiation do we sense as heat?

(1) Radio waves

(2) Ultraviolet

(3) Infrared

(4) Red Light

10. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : Stable air resists vertical movement and unstable air ascends freely because of its own buoyancy.

Reason (R) : When stable air is forced aloft, the clouds that form are wide spread and have little vertical thickness.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

11. Eustatic sea level appears to have fallen in the Neogene, possibly as a result of

(1) the Continental Drift

(2) the Sea Floor Spreading

(3) the growth of the Antarctic ice sheet

(4) the Alpine Orogency

12. Which one of the following salts has its maximum content in sea water ?

(1) NaCl (Sodium Chloride)

(2) KCl (Potassium Chloride)

(3) MgCl (Magnesium Chloride)

(4) BaCl (Barium Chloride)

13. The concept of ecological pyramid was first given by whom?

(1) E.P. Odum

(2) A.G. Tansley

(3) Charles Elton

(4) Juday

14. The Milankovitch cycle refers to

(1) Hydrological cycle

(2) Nitrogen cycle

(3) Phosphorus cycle

(4) Changes in the rotation and revolution of the earth which may trigger climate change

15. Which one of the following is not the form of Coral Reefs ?

(1) Fringing Reefs

(2) Lagoon

(3) Barrier Reefs

(4) Atolls

16. Who among the following geographers laid down the foundation of dichotomy of general versus special Geography ?

(1) Immanuel Kant

(2) Bernhard Varenius

(3) Peter Apin

(4) Sebastian Munster

17. Who among the following was the author of text on classical astronomy entitled ‘Almagest’ ?

(1) Strebo

(2) Plato

(3) Aristotle

(4) Ptolemy

18. Which one of the following schools of thought first developed the idea of possibilism ?

(1) German

(2) Russian

(3) French

(4) British

19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using codes given below.

Table Shows Geographers and Countries
Table shows Geographers and Countries

List – I (Geographers)

List – II (Countries)

I. Alexander Von Humboldt

A. France

II. Ellen Churchill Semple

B. U.K.

III. Peter Haggett

C. U.S.A.

IV. Jeans Brunhes

D. Germany

Q-19 Codes
Q-19 Codes

Codes:

I

II

III

IV

(1)

D

B

C

A

(2)

A

B

C

D

(3)

D

C

B

A

(4)

B

C

A

D

20. Among the following theories, which one is concerned with the discovery of order in the spacing of population clusters and settlements ?

(1) Sector theory

(2) Multiple Nuclei

(3) Concentric zone

(4) Central Place

21. The statement – “Systematic geography must move into theoretical sphere and regional geography into search for ‘generic’ and not ‘unique’ studies” was made by

(1) W.L. Garrison

(2) Edward Ullman

(3) William Warutz

(4) J.Q. Stewart

22. Which one of the following is the child sex ratio in India as per Census of 2011 ?

(1) 914

(2) 916

(3) 918

(4) 915

23. As per 2011 Census of India, the maximum density of population was experienced by which one of the following Union Territories ?

(1) Daman and Diu

(2) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

(3) Andaman and Nicobar

(4) Lakshadweep

24. Two towns with population of 40,000 and 5,000 respectively are located 18 kilometres away. At what distance the breaking point will lie from the smaller town ?

(1) 2.9 km

(2) 3.9 km

(3) 5.9 km

(4) 4.9 km

25. Which one of the following Geographic approaches is correct to study crop diversification ?

(1) Commodity

(2) Systematic

(3) Regional

(4) Behavioural

26. Which of the following Gulf or Sea flanks in the North of the United Arab Emirates ?

(1) Gulf of Oman

(2) Persian Gulf

(3) Arabian Sea

(4) Red Sea

27. The term ‘Dendrochronology’ is used for which of the following?

(1) To study the density of trees in a forest

(2) To study the growth of rings of trees annually

(3) To study the dendretic drainage system

(4) To study the antecedent drainage system

28. Which one of the following elements of landscape is not a factor for variation in transport costs ?

(1) Distance

(2) Type of Terrain

(3) Type of Commodity

(4) Farm Size

29. Which one of the following theories / indices is used to evaluate the accessibility of the nodes in the network by measuring the degree to which they are connected with each other in two ways ?

(1) Game Theory

(2) Beta Index

(3) Graph Theory

(4) Composite Index

30. Who proposed the theory of Heartland in Political Geography ?

(1) Spykman

(2) Mackinder

(3) Smith

(4) Raiz

31. Which of the following Indian languages belongs to Sino-Tibetan family ?

(1) Santhali

(2) Manipuri

(3) Tamil

(4) Ho

32. Quasi-Federal Form of Government is in

(1) UK

(2) USA

(3) India

(4) Russia

33. Which one of the following is the largest in areal extent?

(1) Cultural Point

(2) Cultural Landscape

(3) Cultural Realm

(4) Cultural Region

34. Which one of the following languages belongs to the Semito-Hematic family of languages ?

(1) Hebrew

(2) Chinese

(3) French

(4) Russian

35. The employment multiplier concept was given by

(1) J.C. Stabler

(2) Kahn

(3) R.D. Dean

(4) D.L. McKee

36. Who among the following wrote the book titled ‘The Economics of Location’ ?

(1) F. Perroux

(2) T. Harmensen

(3) A. Kuklinski

(4) A. Losch

37. Which one of the following methods is most suitable for delineation of hinterland of central places ?

(1) Thiesen’s polygon

(2) Reiley’s breaking point

(3) Nearest neighbour

(4) People’s choice

38. Which one of the following methods is most appropriate for raising centrality of central places ?

(1) Raising Agricultural Productivity

(2) Establishing Small Scale Industries

(3) Strengthening Central Function

(4) Promoting export-based activities

39. Which one of the following authors quoted “Development is spontaneous and discontinuous change in the channels of the circular flow, disturbance of equilibrium, which forever alters and displaces the equilibrium state previously existing” ?

(1) E. Domer

(2) W.W. Rostow

(3) G. Myrdal

(4) A. Schumpeter

40. Which one of the following states has the minimum percentage of literates as per the Census of India 2011 ?

(1) Bihar

(2) West Bengal

(3) Madhya Pradesh

(4) Uttar Pradesh

41. In which of the following pairs of Indian States iron ore is formed in abundance ?

(1) Jharkhand and Odisha

(2) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan

(3) Bihar and West Bengal

(4) West Bengal and Chhattisgarh

42. As per the Census of India 2011 which one of the following Union Territories is having highest sex-ratio ?

(1) Chandigarh

(2) Puduchery

(3) Lakshadweep

(4) Daman Diu

43. Which one of the following plateaus lies between Aravali and Vindhyan ranges ?

(1) Chhota Nagpur

(2) Deccan

(3) Malwa

(4) Both (2) and (3)

44. Generally the variability of rainfall during August in India would be more pronounced at

(1) Kolkata

(2) Ranchi

(3) Jodhpur

(4) Lucknow

45. Which one of the following codes given below correctly represented in SOI to posheet using Line Symbol ?

(a) Bench mark

(b) Contour

(c) Spot height

(d) Triangulation station

Codes :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (c) and (d)

(3) (b) and (c) (4) (b) only

Codes :

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (a), (c) and (d)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) (b) only

46. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below.

Assertion (A) : Rank correlation index becomes unsuitable if all the units in one set have equal rank.

Reason (R) : The Spearman’s rank correlation coefficient is not sensitive to the rank ties in the X and Y variables in data.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using codes given below.

Satellite vs. Country
Match satellites and country

List – I (Satellite)

List – II (Country)

I. SPOT

A. India

II. GOES

B. France

III. Meteor-3

C. Russia

IV. INSAT

D. USA

Q-21 Codes
Q-21 Codes

Codes:

I

II

III

IV

(1)

B

D

C

A

(2)

B

D

A

C

(3)

D

B

C

A

(4)

D

B

A

C

48. Which would be the number of grey values of an image if its radiometric resolution is ‘6 bits’ ?

(1) 1024

(2) 256

(3) 64

(4) 32

49. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using codes given below.

Bands of EMR vs. Wavelenght in Micrometers
Match bands of EMR with wavelenght in micrometers

List – I (Bands of EMR)

List – II (Wavelength in micrometers)

I. Visible Band

A. 0.3 – 0.9

II. Photographic Band

B. 0.3 – 15.0

II. Infrared Band

C. 0.4 – 0.7

IV. Optical Band

D. 0.7 – 15.0

Q-21 Codes
Q-21 Codes

Codes:

I

II

III

IV

(1)

C

A

D

B

(2)

A

B

C

D

(3)

D

C

B

A

(4)

B

D

A

C

50. Which one of the following codes given is correctly related with Ground Survey observation?

(a) Geographic Information System

(b) Geographic Base File

(c) Ground Truth Verification

(d) Global Positioning System

Codes :

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (d) and (a)

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