CBSE NET Geography Paper 3 June 2015

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CBSE NET June 2015 Geography Paper 3: Answer Keys, Solutions & Explanations

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Note: This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Which of the following is formed due to tectonic forces?

(1) Rift valley

(2) Hanging valley

(3) Super imposed valley

(4) Antecedent valley

View Answer with Explanation

2. Drowned glaciated valleys in high latitudes regions are known as:

(1) Ocean trenches

(2) Submarine ridges

(3) Fiords

(4) Submarine canons

View Answer with Explanation

3. Match List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given:

Q-3 Match List
Q-3 Match List

List-I

List-II

(a) Basalt

(i) Geneis

(b) Granite

(ii) Quartzite

(c) Sandstone

(iii) Schist

(d) Shale

(iv) Slate

Q-3 Match List Code
Q-3 Match List Code

Codes:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1)

(ii)

(i)

(iv)

(iii)

(2)

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(3)

(iv)

(ii)

(i)

(iii)

(4)

(iii)

(i)

(ii)

(iv)

View Answer with Explanation

4. Consider the following statement regarding kants view on the origin of the earth:

(a) Kant introduced the Newtonian law of gravitation in his theory.

(b) Kant developed his theory accepting the principle of conservation of angular momentum.

(c) Though Laplace put forward the nebular hypothesis of origin of the earth, Kant is regarded by many as the real propounder of the nebular hypothesis.

Which of the statements are correct?

(1) ()a and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) (a) (b) and (c)

View Answer with Explanation

5. Excessive folding results in:

(1) Reverse fault

(2) Geosyncline

(3) Nappe formation

(4) Block disintegration

View Answer with Explanation

6. “All coral reefs begun as fringe reefs around an inland”. This was indicated in:

(1) Day’s glacial control theory

(2) Daly’s subsidence theory

(3) Darwin’s glacial control theory

(4) Darwin’s subsidence theory

View Answer with Explanation

7. Guttenberg discontinuity is found between the:

(1) Upper core and lower core

(2) Mantle and the core

(3) Crust and the mantle

(4) Upper mantle and lower mantle

View Answer with Explanation

8. Who postulated the concept of Sea floor spreading?

(1) W.J. Morgan

(2) T. J. Wilson

(3) Le Pichon

(4) Harry Hess

View Answer with Explanation

9. Mauna Loa, in Hawaii is famous for:

(1) Botanical garden

(2) Monitoring rainfall

(3) Monitoring rainfall

(4) Continuous monitoring of atmospheric Equation since 1957

View Answer with Explanation

10. Match the List-I and List-II select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Q-10. Match List
Q-10. Match List

List-I

List-II

(a) Isohel

(i) Line joining places having same average percentage of cloudiness

(b) Isohaline

(ii) line joining the places having same duration of sunshine

(c) Isotach

(iii) line joining the place having equal salinity in the ocean

(d) Isoneph

(iv) Line joining place having equal wind speed

Q-10. Match List Codes
Q-10. Match List Codes

Codes:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1)

(ii)

(iii)

(i)

(iv)

(2)

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(3)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(i)

(4)

(iv)

(iii)

(i)

(ii)

View Answer with Explanation

11. The only truly continuous pressure belt on the earth is:

(1) Southern hemisphere subtropical high

(2) Northern hemisphere subtropical high

(3) Equatorial low

(4) Southerm hemisphere sub polar low

View Answer with Explanation

12. Which two global winds originate from the subtropical highs?

(1) Polar easterlies and westerlies

(2) Trade winds and polar easterlies

(3) Trade winds and westerlies

(4) Chinook and Foehn

View Answer with Explanation

13. An aircraft is flying at an altitude of 10 km. At that altitude the temperature is Equation What is the ambient temperature on the ground:

(1) Equation

(2) Equation

(3) Equation

(4) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

14. Which one of the following is not a necessary condition for condensation?

(1) Saturation

(2) Surface

(3) High altitude

(4) Water vapour

View Answer with Explanation

15. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Land surface is heated more quickly and to a greater extent than the water surface when subject to an equal amount of insolation

Reason (R) : The specific heat of land is more than that of water

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

View Answer with Explanation

16. Which of the following does not enhance the instability of air?

(1) Radiation cooling of earth’s surface after sun set

(2) Rasiation cooling from cloud top

(3) Heating an air mass from below as it passes over a warm surface

(4) Intense solar heating in the lowermost atmosphere

View Answer with Explanation

17. The speed of a ocean current is about:

(1) 2% of the speed of prevailing wind

(2) 4% of the speed of prevailing wind

(3) 6% of the speed of prevailing wind

(4) 8% of the speed of prevailing wing

View Answer with Explanation

18. The ocean water was iceberg free during the era:

(1) Archaean

(2) Paleozoic

(3) Cenozoic

(4) Mesozoic

View Answer with Explanation

19. The salinity of sea ice ranges from:

(1) 0 – 3%

(2) 3 – 10%

(3) 11 – 17%

(4) 28 – 35%

View Answer with Explanation

20. Match List – I with List –II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Q-20. Match List
Q-20. Match List

List – I (River)

List – II (Sediment transported to ocean in Equation tons/y)

(a) Ganga

(i) 726

(b) Mekong

(ii) 500

(c) Brahmputra

(iii) 1600

(d) Yangtze

(iv) 1000

Q-20. Match List Codes
Q-20. Match List Codes

Codes:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1)

(iii)

(ii)

(iv)

(i)

(2)

(ii)

(i)

(iii)

(iv)

(3)

(iii)

(iv)

(i)

(ii)

(4)

(iv)

(iii)

(i)

(ii)

View Answer with Explanation

21. The place where an organism or community of organisms lives is called:

(1) Environment

(2) Atmosphere

(3) Habital

(4) Society

View Answer with Explanation

22. Photosynthesis is the process by which:

(1) Radiant energy converted into chemical energy

(2) Radiant energy converted into thermal energy

(3) Radiant energy concerted into bio-energy

(4) Radiant energy converted into geo-thermal energy

View Answer with Explanation

23. ‘Vadose water’ remain in between :

(1) Crust and mantle

(2) Mantle and core

(3) Ground surface and water table

(4) Ground surface and tropopause

View Answer with Explanation

24. Which one of the following is not a macro-nutrient to plants?

(1) Carbon

(2) Iron

(3) Nitrogen

(4) Oxygen

View Answer with Explanation

25. The concept of the laws of ‘primate city’ was given by:

(1) E. Huntington

(2) E. C. Semple

(3) M. Jefferson

(4) W. Christaller

View Answer with Explanation

26. To Which school does Eratosthenes, the father of geography belongs to :

(1) Roman

(2) Arab

(3) German

(4) Greek

View Answer with Explanation

27. Von thunen’ Agricultural locational theoty is bases on:

(1) Empirical Approach

(2) Normative Approach

(3) Deductive Approach

(4) Behavioral Approach

View Answer with Explanation

28. Who was gratly influenced by Le Play’s triology of Place – Work – Folk and adopted an alternate triology of Environment – Function – Organism?

(1) Roxby

(2) Geddes

(3) Herbertsen

(4) Chisholm

View Answer with Explanation

29. Which Indian geographer has written the book ‘Geography of Purans’?

(1) S. M. Ali

(2) P. P. Karan

(3) M. Shafi

(4) B. Dubey

View Answer with Explanation

30. Match List – I with List- II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Q-30. Match List
Q-30. Match List

List – I (Modern Indian geographers)

List – II (Field of Specializations)

(a) R.L Singh

(i) Urban Geography

(b) G.S. Gosal

(ii) Settlement Geography

(c) C.D. Despande

(iii) Regional Development and planning

(d) V.L.S. Prakash Rao

(iv) Population Geography

Q-30. Match List Codes
Q-30. Match List Codes

Codes:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1)

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(2)

(iii)

(i)

(iv)

(ii)

(3)

(ii)

(iv)

(i)

(iii)

(4)

(iv)

(iii)

(ii)

(i)

View Answer with Explanation

31. Who among the following scholars is not related with behavioural geography?

(1) W.K. Kink

(2) Peter Gould

(3) Yi Fu Twan

(4) Gilbert White

View Answer with Explanation

32. Which one of the following states in India has the lowest population density in the latest census?

(1) Arunachal Pradesh

(2) Jammu and Kashmir

(3) Sikkim

(4) Mizoram

View Answer with Explanation

33. Which of the following stages of districts in India has recorded the highest sex ratio in 2011?

(1) High stationary stage

(2) Early expanding stage

(3) Late expanding stage

(4) Low stationary stage

View Answer with Explanation

34. Which one of the following districts in India has recorded the highest sex ratio in 2011?

(1) Mahe (Pondicherry)

(2) Almora (Uttarakhand)

(3) Alwar (Rajasthan)

(4) Thanjavur (Tamil Nadu)

View Answer with Explanation

35. Which one of the following density is calculated using following formula: Equation where N is the number of inhabitants, K is per capita quantity of requirement, S is area in square kilometers, and K’ is the quantity of resources produced per Equation .

(1) Arithmetic

(2) Agricultural

(3) Physiological

(4) Economic

View Answer with Explanation

36. Which one of the following measures of central tendency is used to indicate the ‘centre of population’?

(1) Median

(2) Mode

(3) Mean

(4) Harmonic mean

View Answer with Explanation

37. Which of the concept relates population size to the land area with a view to assess pressure of population upon the resurces of thee area?

(1) Population Growth Rate

(2) Population Density

(3) Argiculture Density

(4) Physiological Density

View Answer with Explanation

38. Which one of the following religions has maximum territorial region of dominance in the world?

(1) Budhism

(2) Islam

(3) Christianity

(4) Hinduism

View Answer with Explanation

39. Which one of the following authors has given the concept of “Demand cone” as shown in the diagram?

The concept of “Demand cone

The Concept of “Demand Cone

The concept of “Demand cone

(1) Pareto

(2) August Losch

(3) Christaller

(4) Weber

View Answer with Explanation

40. Which of the following group of crops can be grown in the area having temperature Equation and annual rainfall more than 150 cm?

(1) Barley, Jute, Tea

(2) Rubber, Rice Jute

(3) Tea, Coffee, Maize

(4) Rice, Wheat, Maize

View Answer with Explanation

41. Match List- I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Q-41. Match List
Q-41. Match List

List-I (Authors)

List – II (theory)

(a) Weber

(i) Minimum production cost

(b) Smith

(ii) Maximum profit

(c) Hotelling

(iii) Minimum transport cost

(d) Hoover

(iv) Market competition

Q.41 Match List Codes
Q.41 Match List Codes

Codes:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1)

(iii)

(ii)

(iv)

(i)

(2)

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(3)

(iii)

(iv)

(i)

(ii)

(4)

(i)

(ii)

(iv)

(iii)

View Answer with Explanation

42. Given below are two statements one labelled as assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason(R) select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A ) : All Japanese steel production occurs at coastal locations.

Reason (R) : The Japanese steel capacity has a coastal exposure and direct access to deep-water ports.

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are the true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) as not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

View Answer with Explanation

43. Consider the following map of an area:

Consider the following map of an area

Consider the Following Map of an Area

Consider the following map of an area

View Answer with Explanation

44. Which one of the following is correct sequence of urban land uses in respect of ab, bc and cd as per given graph?

Image of correct sequence of urban land

Image of Correct Sequence of Urban Land

Image of correct sequence of urban land

(1) Industrial, Residential and Commercial

(2) Commercial, Residential and Industrial

(3) Commercial, Industrial and Residential

(4) Residential, Commercial and Industrial

View Answer with Explanation

45. Whiteness classified agricultural systems of the world. How many agricultural systems were identified by him?

(1) 10

(2) 19

(3) 14

(4) 13

View Answer with Explanation

46. Which one of the following group of countries is leading total coal import countries of the world in 2013 according to the world coal association?

(1) Bangladesh, South Africa and France, India

(2) Poland, South Africa, japan and France

(3) China, Japan, India, S. Korea

(4) Japan, South Korea, Frannce, Canada

View Answer with Explanation

47. Match List- I with List – II and select the correct answer from codes given below:

Q-47. Match List
Q-47. Match List

List –I (Risely’s classification of India Race)

List- II (Representattives of the respective races)

(a) Indo-Aryans

(i) The Bhils of Rajasthan

(b) Dravidians

(ii) The Brahmins of Odisha

(c) Mongoloids

(iii) The jats of Odisha

(d) Mongolo-Dravidians

(iv) The Bhutias of Utarakhand

Q-47. Match List Codes
Q-47. Match List Codes

Codes:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1)

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(2)

(iv)

(iii)

(ii)

(i)

(3)

(ii)

(iv)

(i)

(iii)

(4)

(iii)

(i)

(iv)

(ii)

View Answer with Explanation

48. Given below two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason(R), select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A) Indian Ocean has become the military bases by many super- powers.

Reason (R) There strong geo-political benefits in Indian ocean and adjacent countries.

Codes.

(1) Both (A) and are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is flase.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

View Answer with Explanation

49. Match list –I with List –II and select correct answer from the codes given below:

Q-49. Match List
Q-49. Match List

List-I (State)

List-II (Tribes)

(a) Gujarat

(i) The gonds

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(ii) The Mikirs

(c) Assam

(iii) The Khonds

(d) Odisha

(iv) The Bhils

Q-49. Match List Codes
Q-49. Match List Codes

Codes:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1)

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(2)

(iii)

(iv)

(o)

(ii)

(3)

(iv)

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(4)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(i)

View Answer with Explanation

50. Match List – I with list –II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Q-50. Match List
Q-50. Match List

List-I (Countries)

List-II (Party System Government)

(a) U.S.A.

(i) One party

(b) China

(ii) Two party

(c) India

(iii) Three party

(d) U.K.

(iv) Multi party

Q-50. Match List Codes
Q-50. Match List Codes

Codes:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1)

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(2)

(ii)

(i)

(iv)

(iii)

(3)

(iii)

(iv)

(ii)

(i)

(4)

(iv)

(iii)

(i)

(ii)

View Answer with Explanation

Q-51. Which of the following statement statements is the base of the concept of caste region?

(1) Numberical strength of a caste

(2) Social ranking of a caste in a region

(3) Proportion of a cast in population

(4) Share of a caste in land ownership

View Answer with Explanation

52. Which one of the following is the propounder of the shown model?

The propounder of the shown model Image

The Propounder of the Shown Model Image

The propounder of the shown model Image

(1) Zelinsky’s Mobility Model

(2) Rely’s Modelvof Migration

(3) Gosal Model of Migration

(4) Lee’s Model of Migration

View Answer with Explanation

53. Which one of the following regions is defined as “A Contiguous geographical area characterised by cultural homogeneity…”

(1) Population Region

(2) Geographical Region

(3) Cultural Realm

(4) Settlement zone

View Answer with Explanation

54. Which constitutional Amendment Act has 12th schedule devolving functions to municipal bodies?

(1) 73rd

(2) 72nd

(3) 74th

(4) 75th

View Answer with Explanation

55. Which of the urban structure models labelled three areas: (1) The city of death, (2) the city of need and (3) the city of superfluity?

(1) Exploitive model of urban structure

(2) Multiple nuclei

(3) Sector model

(4) Social area analysis model

View Answer with Explanation

56. To study regional imbalance and regional disparities in India, which one of the following methods was applied?

(1) Uniweighted Ranks

(2) Composite Index

(3) Principal Component Analysis

(4) Input-Output Analysis

View Answer with Explanation

57. Which one of the following factors does not determine the kinds and amount of economic ctivity in the region?

(1) Cost of Transportation

(2) Inequality of Income

(3) Technology of Production

(4) Demand Side of the Equation

View Answer with Explanation

58. The main thrust of regional planning is:

(1) To remove areal

(2) To initiate economic growth

(3) To have industrial expansion

(4) To increase per capita income

View Answer with Explanation

59. Regional growth model by Douglass C. North emphasize the role of ‘_________ factors’ in regional growth.

(1) Hexagenous

(2) Endogenous

(3) Indogenous

(4) Exogenous

View Answer with Explanation

60. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the given below:

Q-60. Math List
Q-60. Math List

List- I (Concept)

List-II (Definitions)

(a) Urban growth

(i) Relatively large and densely settled populations engaged primarily in non- agricultural economic pursuits

(b) Town group

(ii) Net population increase of towns and cities

(c) Urban

(iii) Proportionate increase of the urban population in relation to total population in a given country

(d) Urbanisation

(iv) A group of towns which adjoined one another so closely as to form a single inhabited urban locality

Q-60. Math List Codes
Q-60. Math List Codes

Codes:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1)

(iv)

(i)

(iii)

(ii)

(2)

(ii)

(iv)

(i)

(iii)

(3)

(iii)

(ii)

(iv)

(i)

(4)

(i)

(iii)

(ii)

(iv)

View Answer with Explanation

61. Where is Govind Sagar Lake located?

(1) Ranjit Sagar Dam

(2) Hirakund Dam

(3) Kosi Dam

(4) Bhakra Nangal Dam

View Answer with Explanation

62. The maximum % share of irrigated area of the gross cultivated area is found in:

(1) Jammu and Kashmir

(2) Uttar Pradesh

(3) Punjab

(4) Haryana

View Answer with Explanation

63. Kakrapara irrigation project is on the river:

(1) Narmada

(2) Godavari

(3) Tapti

(4) Mahanadi

View Answer with Explanation

64. The river Indus Originates from:

(1) Mansarowar Lake

(2) Kailash range

(3) Loktak lake

(4) Tibet

View Answer with Explanation

65. Given below are two statements, one labelled as assertion (A) and other labelled as

Reason (R), select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh are major wheat producing states of India.

Reason (R) : The well-drained fertile soil, Equation temoerature at the time of sowing and about 75 cm rainfall are necessary for good wheat production.

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

View Answer with Explanation

66. Which of the canal has transformed agricultural activities of sri Ganga Nagar, Bikaner and jaisalmer district?

(1) Kanhar Canalanga Canal

(2) Ram Ganga Canal

(3) Sharada sahayak Canal

(4) Indira Gandhi Canal

View Answer with Explanation

67. Report published by UNDP which compares countries based on education levels of people their health status and per capita income, is:

(1) Human Education Report

(2) Human Population Report

(3) Human Development Report

(4) Human Quaity Report

View Answer with Explanation

68. Spatial data is stored in computer by using:

(1) Plotter digitizer and keyboard

(2) Keyboard and plotter

(3) Scanner, Digitizer and keyboard

(4) Digitizer and scanner

View Answer with Explanation

69. LANDSAT, SPOT and IRS are examples of:

(1) Sun-synchronous satellites

(2) Geostationary satellites

(3) Radars

(4) Natural satellites

View Answer with Explanation

70. Which one of the following statistical method is best suited for groundwater exploration by using GIS tools?

(1) Standard deviation method

(2) Principal component analysis method

(3) Trial and error method

(4) Index-overlay method

View Answer with Explanation

71. Which one of the following countries first launched Operational Remote Sensing satellite?

(1) USA

(2) UK

(3) USSR

(4) Germany

View Answer with Explanation

72. Raster data start from:

(1) Top – Right corner of the displayed window.

(2) Top-left corner of the displayed window.

(3) Bottom-Right corner of the displayed window.

(4) Bottom-Left corner of the displayed window.

View Answer with Explanation

73. Which one of the following rearms shows variance of a particular distribution?

(1) Equation

(2) Equation

(3) Equation

(4) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

74. Assume there are four families in a country. The average per capita income of these families is rs. 5000. If the income of three families is Rs.3000, Rs. 4000 and Rs. 7000 respectively, what is the income of fourth family?

(1) 7500

(2) 2000

(3) 3000

(4) 6000

View Answer with Explanation

75. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Q-75. Match List
Q-75. Match List

List – I (Landsat 4 and 5 TM)

List-II (System Characteristics)

(a) IFOV

(i) 185 km

(b) Revisit

(ii) 705 km

(c) Altitude

(iii) 16 days

(d) Swath. Width

(iv) 30 Equation 30 m for 1-5,7 bands

Q-75. Match List Codes
Q-75. Match List Codes

Codes:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1)

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(2)

(ii)

(iii)

(i)

(iv)

(3)

(iv)

(iii)

(ii)

(i)

(4)

(iv)

(iii)

(i)

(ii)

View Answer with Explanation