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# CBSE NET Environmental Science Answer Key Paper 2 December 2015 [ CBSE NET-JRF Updates ]

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CBSE NET Paper 2 December 2015 for environmental science is given below. For complete answers and explanations visit Doorsteptutor. com - Detailed solutions and explanations to Environmental Studies Past Papers

1. Which one of the following elements Contributes maximum to the earth crust by weight?

(1) Iron

(2) Silicon

(3) Oxygen

(4) Carbon

2. The lowest temperature is observed in which byer of the atmosphere

(1) Troposphere (2) Stratosphere (3) Mesosphere (4) Thermosphere

3. Which of the following gases has the lowest residence time?

(1) CO2 (2) N2O (3) CFCs (4) CH4

4. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Chromium (VI) is highly toxic

(2) Methyl mercury is most toxic mercury species

(3) Arsenic (III) is more toxic than arsenic (V)

(4) Cadmium is a criteria pollutant

5. the most abundant functional group present in fulvic acid, commonly found in soils is:

(1) Peptide group (2) Carboxylate group

(3) Phenolic group (4) amino group

6. The source of Stratospheric NOx is:

(1) Atmospheric N2, (2) Tropospheric N2O

(3) Tropospheric NO (4) Tropospheric NO2

7. In troposphere, which of the following processes does not generate hydroxyl radical?

(1) O (1D) +H20 (2) O (3P) +H2O (3) HCHO + hv (4) HNO2+hv

8. The most common form of lead preset in pesticide is:

9. Consider the following four statement about benzo (a) pyrene:

(a) It is a group 1 carcinogen

(b) It is a polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon

(c) Its molecular formula is C20H12

(d) It has four benzene rings

Choose the correct code:

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (b), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

10. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A) - Radon is an inert gas and it is radioactive

Reason (R) all inert gases are radioactive

Choose the correct answer

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both A and R correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false, but (R) Is true

11. Most of Epiphytes are examples of type al biotic interactions called.

(1) Mutualisms

(2) Coevolution

(3) Commensalism

(4) Parasitism

12. Inhalation of airborne mold spore leads to disease in man such as.

(1) Bronchitis (2) Allergy

(3) Cardiac congestion (4) Eye irritation

13. Biological diversity is mainly function of:

(a) Latitude

(b) Longitude

(c) Distance from sea

Choose the correct answer:

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (b) only

(3) (b) and (c) only

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

14. The ability of a living system to be restored through secondary succession alter a more severe disturbance is known as:

(1) Rehabilitation (2) Resistance (3) Resilience (4) Restoration

15. The characteristic feature of the background extinction is disappearance of a species at a:

(1) Low rate (2) fast rate (3) lapse rate (4) intrinsic rate

16. Speciation means -

(1) Natural process of extinction of different species

(2) Artificial process of extinction of different species

(3) One species splits into two or more different species naturally

(4) Characterization of different species

17. Topological modelling is a well-organized cluster of functions in GIS to process:

(a) Spatial data

(b) Attribute data

(c) Physico-chemical data

(d) Species richness data

Choose the correct code:

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (b) and (c) only

(4). (a), (b) (C) and (d)

18. A rock body or formation which may be porous enough to hold enough quantity of water but which by virtue of its other properties does not allow an easy and quick flow through it

(1) Aquitard (2) Aquifuge (3) Aquiclude (4) Aquifer

19. For many decades, geologists noted the high number of earthquakes and active volcanoes occurring around the rim of the Pacific Ocean basin. This is called:

(1) Volcanic ring

(2) Ring of fire

(3) Earthquake zone

(4) Volcanic hot spot

20. Inversion that occurs near Earth’s Surface is called

(3) Subsidence inversion

(4) Cold - air - drainage inversion

21. The radiation flux emitted per unit solid angle in a specified direction by a unit area of source is called

22. Mean residence time of soil organic matter in an ecosystem is maximum in

(1. ) Tropical rain forest (2) Boreal forest

(3) Temperate coniferous forest (4) Dry deciduous forest

23. Worst affected area by Indian Ocean ’Tsunami of December 2004 in India was

(1) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (2) Tamil Nadu

(3) Andhra Pradesh (4) Odisha

24. Consider solar insolation of 400W/m2 incident on a single solar cell of area 100 cm2. lf only 15 % of the photons cause electron hole pairs and the average energy of incident photons is A~1 eV, the short circuit current of the cell is -

(1) 1.2 A (2) 1.5 A (3) 1.6 A (4) 1.8

25. For which of the following renewable resource of energy, sun is not directly responsible

(1) Wind (2) Biomass (3) OTEC (4) Tidal

26. In terms of the calorific value, identify the correct sequence:

(1) Methane > hydrogen > ethanol > methanol

(2) Hydrogen > methane > ethanol > methanol

(3) Methane > hydrogen > methanol > ethanol

(4) Hydrogen > ethanol > methane > methanol

27. At a given location the wind speed are predominantly in the range 6 to 6.4 m/s. This location’s wind power class will be termed as

(1) Fair (2) Good

(3) Excellent (4) Outstanding

28. Which of the following nuclides does not undergo fission with low energy (slow) neutrons

(1) 235 U (2) 238 U (3) 239 Pu (4) 233U

29. According to CPCB standards the annual average Concentration of PM2.5 should not exceed -

(1) 60 $\mu gm-3$ (2) 40 $\mu gm-3$ (3) 80$\mu gm-3$ (4) 100 $\mu gm-3$

30. Which of the following is a secondary aerosol?

(1) Pollens (2) Virus

(3) Sodium Chloride (4) Ammonium Sulphate

31. In the colorimetric determination of ambient SO2 by WEST-GAEKE method, the absorbance of the colored complex should be measured at which of the following wavelengths?

(1) 550 nm (2) 650 nm (3) 450 nm (4) 350 nm

32. A healthy human ear, before experiencing pain, can detect sound pressure levels as high

As:

(1) 50 Pa (2) 100 Pa (3) 200 Pa (4) 1000 Pa

33. The resultant of two noise levels of 80 dB and 50 dB will be about:

(A) $~$80 dB (2) ~ 82 dB (3) ~60 dB (4) ~130 dB

34. The half-life of radioactive iodine —131 is:

(1) 30 years (2) 15 years (3) 5 years (4) 8 years

35. Which of the following best describes the function of the environmental management plan as a part of the environmental statement?

(1) It describes the environmental impacts of the proposal

(2) Ii describes the baseline environmental data.

(3) It describes the project proposal in detail.

(4) It describes the actions and auditing procedures needed

36. India submitted its lNDCs related to climate change to the UN recently. What does lNDCs stand for?

(I) Intended Nationally devoted Contributions

(2) Intended Nationally Determined Contributions

(3) Intended Notified Decisive Contributions

(4) India’s Nationally Determined Contributions

37. Formal EIA became an integral part of Environmental Management in India by a notification for

the first time in-

(1) 1988 (2) l999 (3) 1992 (4) 1994

38. EIA is necessary because:

(a) Development is not good foe environment

(b) Environmental impacts of development are in public interest

(c) There is growing interest in sustainability

Choose the correct answer

(1) (a) only (2) (b) only (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)

39. A moist air parcel at 24$°$C has a mixing ratio of 10 g per kg. Its virtual temperature is:

(1) ~ 25.8$°$C (2) ~20.6°C (3) ~ 31.25°C (4) ~ 28.12°C

40. The Vienna Convention is basically related to:

(1) International trade in endangered species

(2) Protection of O3 layer

(3) Biodiversity conservation

(4) Preservation of cultural environment

41. According to Wildlife Protection Act in India, who is the authority to issue permission to Hunt rogue animals?

(1) Chief Minister of the State (2) Chief Wildlife warden

(3) Conservator of Forest (4) Deputy Commissioner

42. According to MOEF (now MOEFCC) notification of 1992, for labelling cosmetics as Environment friendly product, the presence of fluoride (F) in tooth paste/powder should not exceed:

(1) 20 ppm (2) 50 ppm (3) 1O0 ppm () 10 ppm

43. Which one of the following methods convert decomposed liquid or solid hazardous organic Waste effectively

(1) Open incineration (2J Plasma incineration

(3) Sanitary landfill (4) Bioremediation

44. For a bi-variate samples the correlation coefficient is 0.25 and it is found to be significantly different from zero at 5 % level of significance. Given t0.05=1.645 what is the minimum size of the sample?

(1) 43 (2) 50 (3) 55 (4) 63

45. Which One of the following is nonprobability sampling?

(1) Convenience probability (2) Stratified

(3) Cluster (4) Systemic

46. A parametric test generally used to compare sample variance to a theoretical population, variance is:

(1) F-Test (2) Z test (3) t - test (4) x2 – text

47. From a random sample of 36 fish caught in a sample, the mean length ($\overline{X}$) and sample Standard deviation (sd) were found to be, 30 cm and 6 cm respectively. If at 95 % confidence level z is 1.96, and then the mean length of fish in this population is in the range:

(1) 27 < X < 33 (2) 27.5 < X < 32.5 (3) 24 < X < 36 (4) 28.04 < X < 32

48. One of the natural causes of occurrence, of inland soil alkalinity is the presence of:

(1) Sodium hypochlorite (2) Potassium nitrate

(3) Sodium chloride (4) Sodium carbonate

49. The Supreme Court of India directed the government to implement environmental education in all educational institutions as compulsory subject in

(1) 1976 (2) 2003 (3) 1988 (4) 2014

50. Organic wetland soils have:

(1) High cation capacity (2) high bulk density

(3) Low porosity (4) high nutrient availability

- Published on: December 30, 2015