CSIR Earth Sciences December 2014
Q-1. We define a function sum of digits of expressed as decimal number. E.g. Evaluate.
Q-2. Every month the price of a particular commodity falls in this order:
1024, 640, 400, 250 , …
What is the next value?
2. Approximately 39
Q-3. A cubical piece of wood was filed to make it into the largest possible sphere. What fraction o the original volume was removed?
1. More than
3. Slightly less than
4. Slightly more than
Q-4. Three volumes of a Hindi book, identical in shape and size, are next to each other in a shelf, all upright, so that the it spines are visible, left to right; I, II and III. A worm stats eating from the outside front cover of volume I, and II and III. A worm start eating from the outside front cover of volume I, and eats its way horizontally to the outside back cover of volume III. What is the distance travelled by the worm, if each volume is 6 cm thick?
1. 6 cm
2. 12 cm
3. 18 cm
4. A little more than 18 cm
Q-5. What is the area of the triangle bounded by the lines and
Q-6. A 2.2 m wide rectangular steel plate is corrected as shown in the diagram. Each corrugation is a semi-circle in cross section having a diameter of 7 cm. What will be the width of steel sheet after it is corrugated?
1. 1.4 m
2. 1.6 m
3. 0.7 m
4. 1.1 m
Q-7. Ajay, Bunty, Chinu and Deb were agent, baker, compounder and designer, but not necessarily in that order. Deb told the baker that Chinu is on his way. Ajay is sitting across the designer and next to the compounder. The designer didn’t say anything. What is each person’s occupation?
1. Ajay-compounder; Bunty-designer; Chinu-baker; Deb-agent
2. Ajay-compounder; Bunty-baker; Chinu-agent; Deb-compounder
3. Ajay-baker; Bunty-agent; Chinu-designer; Deb-compounder
4. Ajay-baker; Bunty-designer; Chinu-agent; Deb-compounder
Q-8. Two platforms are separated horizontally by distance A and vertically by distance B. They are to be connected by a staircase having identical steps. If the minimum permissible step length is a, and the maximum permissible step height is b, the number of steps the staircase can have is
Q-9. The sum of first n natural with one of them missed is 42. What is the number that was missed?
Q-10. A mouse has to go from point A to B without retracing any part of the path, and never moving backwards. What is the total number of distinct paths that the mouse may take to go from A to B?
Q-11. A certain day, which is xx days before August, is such that 50 days prior to that day, it was 4x days since march of the same year, What is x?.
Q-12. What is the next term in the following sequence?
7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29 , ……..
Q-13. Which of the following figures best shows that is inversely proportional to x?
Q-14. What is the maximum number of whole laddoos having diameter of 6 cm that can be packed in a box whose inner dimensions are
Q-15. If N , E and T are distinct positive integers such that , then which of the following is the maximum possible sum of
Q-16. The areas of the inner circle and the shaded ring are equal. The radii and are related by
Q-17. The equation where m & n are integers, has
1. No solution
2. Exactly one solution
3. Exactly two solutions
4. Infinitely many solutions
Q-18. Which of the following number is a perfect square?
Q-19. What is the term of the following sequence?
Q-20. The following graphs depict variation in the value of Dollar and Euro in terms of the Rupee over six months.
Which of the following statements is true?
1. Values of Dollar and Euro rose steadily from January to June
2. Values of Dollar and Euro rose by equal rate between Januarys to March.
3. The rise in the value of Dollar from April to May is three times the fall in Euro during the same period
4. Values of Dollar and Euro rose equally between May and June.
Q-21. Along an irregular coastline consisting of bays and headlands, wave crest will undergo one of the following changes:
1. The waves slow down earlier opposite the headlands
2. The waves slow down within the bays
3. The waves move at the same velocity opposite the headlands and within the bays
4. The waves move towards the shore at relatively higher and at a relatively lower velocity within the bays
Q-22. Which one of the following statements about headword erosion is incorrect?
1. It increases the length of a valley
2. It increases the channel gradient
3. It increases the sinuosity of a drainage divide
4. It is associated with stream capture
Q-23. If the angle of axial tilt of the Earth doubles, then one of the following possibilities is unlikely:
1. The length of summer and winter days and nights will increase greatly
2. Extreme temperature differences would occur from winter to summer
3. This would cause well-defined climatic zones
4. In December more of the northern Hemisphere would have 24 hours of darkness
Q-24. Under which of the following conditions does a river aggrade?
1. High water to sediment ratio
2. Low water to sediment ratio
3. High velocity and low sediment load
4. High gradient and low sediment load
Q-25. The West Wind Drift is associated with which of the following major ocean currents?
1. Gulf stream
2. Antarctic circum polar Current
3. West Australian Current
4. Angola Current
Q-26. Which one of the following sediment types commonly occurs in ocean in trenches?
1. Foraminifera ooze
2. Pteropod ooze
3. Nanno-foram ooze
4. Siliceous ooze
Q-27. Gulf Stream, Kuroshio Current, Brazil Current and Agulhas Current
1. Move warm waters towards the poles
2. Are eastern boundary currents
3. Move cold waters towards the tropics
4. Are narrow current moving slowly
Q-28. During El Nino, which of the following does NOT occur?
1. Strengthening of the trade winds
2. Warming of the surface waters in tropical eastern Pacific
3. Decrease in the strength of Walker circulation
4. Reduced or no upwelling at the Peruvian Margin
Q-29. The great oceanic conveyor belt is driven by
1. Wind action
2. Tidal forces
3. Salinity and temperature differences
4. Earth’s rotation
Q-30. Which of the following sequences is the correct order of appearance in the geological history of the Earth?
1. Fishes, Dinosaurs, Flowering plants, Whales.
2. Flowering plants, Whales, Dinosaurs, Fishes
3. Fishes, Flowering plants, whales, Dinosaurs
4. Dinosaurs, Fishes, Flowering plants, Whales
Q-31. Gondwana coals of India, as compared to coals from other parts of the world, are richer in
1. Fixed carbon
Q-32. The interval between successive high tides at any given place on the Earth is
1. 6 hours
2. 6 hours 6 minutes
3. 12 hours
4. 12 hours 25 minutes
Q-33. The climatic conditions under which chemical weathering would be most rapid are:
1. Cold and dry
2. Hot and humid
3. Cold and moist
4. Hot and dry
Q-34. In which of the following environments do sediments show the poorest sorting?
Q-35. In the increasing order of resistance to chemical weathering the correct sequence of minerals is
1. Olivine – Feldspar – Quartz
2. Feldspar – Olivine – Quartz
Q-36. The primary long term sink of atmospheric is
1. Organic carbon burial
2. Carbonate burial
3. Carbonate weathering
4. Sequestration of C in soil
Q-37. In a stratigraphic sequence, flood plain deposits can be recognized on the basis of
1. Fine grain size and multiple palaeosols
2. Coarse grain size and multiple palaeosols
3. Presence of cross bedding and absence of palaeosols.
4. Absence of cross bedding and palaeosols
Q-38. In The Quaternary Period, sea level was the highest at
1. 125 ka
2. 20 ka
3. 6 ka
4. 10 ka
Q-39. Which of the following group of minerals are formed by Earth’s surface processes?
3. Gibbsite - kaolinite – Biotite
Q-40. Which of the following plots correctly represents the temperature distribution in the Earth’s atmosphere?
Q-41. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
1. Andes=Continent-Continent collision
2. Red Sea = Continental subduction
3. Japanese islands = Oceanic subduction
4. Andaman and Nicobar islands = Sea-floor spreading
Q-42. Si, Al, Na and K are the major chemical constituents of granite. What could be the mineralogy of granite?
1. Nepheline + Quartz
2. Feldspar + Mica
3. Mica + Hornblende
4. Feldspar + Quartz
Q-43. Magnetite, gold chromites and tin ores occur together in river place deposits. This association is due to their
1. Geochemical affinity
2. Derivation from a single source rock
3. Densities being higher than those of other minerals
4. Similar magnetic properties
Q-44. In general, from upper crust to the mantle, which of the following changes occur?
1. Density increases, mafic minerals increase and Mg/Si ratio increases
2. Elasticity increases, mafic minerals decrease and Mg/Si ratio increases
3. Density decreases, mafic minerals increase and Mg/Si ratio decreases
4. Elasticity increases, mafic minerals increases and Mg/Si ratio decreases
Q-45. An expedition across the mid-ocean ridges mapped magnetic reversals and the width of basalts, which can be used to infer:
1. Intensity of Earth’s magnetic field
2. Position of Earth’s magnetic poles
3. Magnetic latitudes of the region mapped
4. Rate of sea-floor spreading
Q-46. Percentage of total gaseous mass of the atmosphere contained in the troposphere is
Q-47. The maximum intensity of the Tropical Easterly Jet Stream over the Indian region is observed over
1. latitude at a height of 13-15 km during June- September
2. latitude at a height of 14-16 km during June- September
3. latitude at a height of 10-2 km during June- September
4.latitude at a height of 14-16 km during June- September
Q-48. Nonwesters are
1. Extra tropical disturbances moving from northwest to southeast over Rajasthan in winter
2. Bay depressions moving towards northwest during the monsoon
3. Squalls associated with thunderstorm in northeastern India during pre-monsoon.
4. Heavy rainfall spells in northeast India during the monsoon.
Q-49.If the greenhouse effect were to be absent, the mean effective radiating temperature of the Earth’s atmosphere would be
Q-50. Which of the following clouds is most likely to produce hail?
Q-51. Precipitation from warm clouds is primarily due to the
1. Growth of condensation nuclei by diffusion
2. Diffusion growth of ice crystals
3. Collision –coalescence of water droplets
4. Accretion of super cooled water droplets and ice crystals
Q-52. Which of the following elements has the least residence time in sea water?
Q-53. Which of the following gradients best represent the continental slope?
Q-54. A large part of the oceanic biological production comes from
Q-55. In a solid mixture of two end-member- phases A and B such that A is 60% and B is 40%. If another phase C is added to this to make 20% of this solid, then the concentration of A and B in this solid would be, respectively
1. 60%, 40%
2. 48%, 32%
3. 52%, 28%
4. 45%,35%View Answer with Explanation
Q-56. A zircon separated from a sandstone is dated at 1.8 Ga; however, the depositional age of the sandstone is 0.8 Ga, this means that
1. Deposition of sandstone started at 1.8 Ga and ended by 0.8 Ga ago
2. Zircon is detritus and derived from a 1.8 Ga rock
3. Zircon has been in transit for more than 1 Ga
4. Sandstone is deposited over a 1.2 Ga basement
Q-57. Magma is generated in subduction zone because of
1. Decrease in melting point of a part of mantle due to decrease in pressure
2. Decrease in melting point due to influx of fluid in the mantle
3. Decrease in melting point of a part of mantle due to convergence of plates
4. frictional heating of the mantle
Q-58. By building a dam across a river we put extra load on the Earth’s crust around the dam site. However, the dam site usually remains stable because the load does not exceed
1. Elastic limit of the rock constituting the dam foundation
2. Ultimate strength of the rock constituting the dam foundation
3.Young’s modulus of the rock constituting the dam foundation
4. Tensile strength of the rock constituting the dam foundation
Q-59. A trilobite bearing flat shale bed lies over a folded stromatolitic limestone intruded by 600 Ma old granite The age of the above shale bed is
Q-60. Oolites in sedimentary rocks are usually spherical in shape with a concentric internal structure. In a deformed oolitic rock, the shape of oolite would be
Q-61. Which of the following fault types is associated with crustal shortening?
1. Normal fault
2. Strike fault
3. Transform fault
Q-62. Elevated land masses undergoing isostatic compensation are associated with
1. Strong positive Bouguer anomalies irrespective of level of compensation
2. Strong negative Bouguer anomalies irrespective of level of compensation
3. Strong positive Bouguer anomalies in case of under compensation and negative otherwise
4. Strong negative Bouguer anomalies in case of under compensation and positive otherwise
Q-63. A way from the epicenter of an earthquake, its
1. Intensity and magnitude remain the same
2. Intensity remains the same, but the magnitude decreases
3. Magnitude remains the same, but intensity decreases
4. Magnitude and intensity decrease.
Q-64. Which of the following shows a decreasing release of energy during an earthquake?
1. Thrust, strike-slip, normal
2. Thrust, normal, strike-slip
3. normal, thrust, strike-slip
4. Strike-slip, normal, thrust
Q-65. A compression wave travelling through medium of seismic velocity when incident at the interface of an underlying medium with seismic velocity gets refracted at an angle . If the velocity in the underlying medium is the wave incident at the same angle
1. Is critically reflected
2. totally reflected
3. Is refracted at an angle less than
4. Is refracted at the same angle
Q-66. If The Earth were to have twice its present radius, without any change in its average magnetization, its magnetic field would be
(a) Same as its present value
(b) Twice its present value
(c) Half its present value
(d) One-fourth of its present value
Q-67 IF and are the velocities of longitudinal waves in the lower mantle, outer core and inner core of the Earth respectively, then
Q-68. Which of the statements about cyclones is wrong?
1. Cyclones rarely form near the equator
2. Cyclones form in the zones of strong vertical wind shear
3. Cyclones can form when there are extensive ocean areas with a surface temperature greater than
4. Cyclone formation is affected by the position of the Equatorial Trough
Q-69. Rainfall mainly occurs during afternoon or evening at Bengaluru because
1. Bengaluru is nearly equidistant from Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal
2. Bengaluru is at an elevation of nearly 1 km above mean sea level
3. Monsoon depressions are centered at Bengaluru
4. Being an interior continental region, rainfall over Bengaluru is by thunderstorm events
Q-70. Maximum concentration of pollutants near the earth’s surface is observed at
1. Night time during winter over interior continental regions
2. Night time over oceanic areas
3. Day time over oceanic areas
4. Day time during summer and interior continental regions.
PART – C
Q-71. If the initial of a rock is negative then, the rock
1. Must have been generated from LREE enriched source.
2. Must have been generated from LREE depleted source.
3. Was altered chemically and all Nd was lost
4. Formed from an undifferentiated mantle.
Q-72. Powder X-ray diffraction analysis of crystals belonging to primitive and face-centre cubic space lattice were carried out. Comparing their scans, one find that
(a) given more diffraction lines.
(b) given more diffraction lines.
(c) Both given the same number of diffraction lines
(d) Both given identical ‘d’ values.
Q-73. are the maximum and minimum principal stresses, respectively, in a two-dimensional homogeneous state of stress. What is the maximum possible shear stress?
Q-74. ratio of marine carbonate precipitated during a glacial period would be
1. Lower compared to that of carbonate precipitated during interglacial period
2. Higher compared to that of carbonate precipitated during interglacial period
3. Equal to that of carbonate precipitated during interglacial period
4. Lower compared to that of coexisting ocean water
Q-75. In a set of parallel fractures, the hydraulic conductivity of a single fracture is ‘k’, fracture porosity is and fracture width is What will be the hydraulic conductivity of parallel fractures?
Q-76 . Choose the correct crystal symmetry represented by the stereogram shown below.
Q-77. Mixed layer depth increases when
1. Wind speed increases, precipitation increases and solar heating increases
2. Wind speed increases, evaporation increases and solar heating decreases
3. Wind speed increases, evaporation decreases and solar heating decreases
4. Wind speed increases, precipitation decreases and solar heating increases
Q-78. Two strike slip-faults show side-stepping, as illustrated below:
1. Pull-apart basins along both and
2. Push-up structure along and pull apart along
3. Push-up structure along both
4. Pull- apart basin along and push-up along .
Q-79. A 1000 year old tree and a 10 year old gastropod were buried during an earthquake. After 5730 years the specific activity of would be
1. Ten times higher in the tree than in the gastropod
2. Hundred times higher in the tree than in the gastropod
3. The same in both
4. Lower in the tree than in the gastropod
Q-80.What is the most common rock assemblage that hosts volcanogenic massive sulfide deposits?
1. Basalt-komatiite-iron formation
4. Andesite-shale-iron formation
Q-81. Find the correct pairing of metamorphic facies and the correct pairing of metamorphic facies and the corresponding mineral assemblages.
Metamorphic facies Mineral Assemblage
A. Green schist i. Omphacite-kyanite-garnet
B. Middle amphibolites ii. Chlorite-muscovite-biotite
C. Upper amphibolites iii. Muscovite-biotite- K feldspar-sillimanite
D. low-pressure granulite iv. K-feldspar-spinel-cordierite
E. Eclogite v. K-feldspar-spinel-cordierite
F. High-pressure granulite vi. Muscovite-biotite-staurolite-kyanite
1. A-i; B-iii; C-iv; D-vi; E-ii; F-v;
2. A-ii; B-vi; C-iii; D-v; E-i; F-iv;
3. A-v; B-vi; C-iii; D-ii; E-i; F-iv;
4. A-iii; B-iv; C-v; D-i; E-ii; F-vi;
Q-82. Rift-type sedimentary basins rarely developed during the early Archaean. This was because
1. Tectonic forces were weak.
2. The lithosphere was hot and ductile.
3. Sediment production was less.
4. There were no large continents.
Q-83. The sequence in which salts precipitate in saline lakes during progressive evaporation is
1. Calcite-sodium sulphate-gypsum-halite
2. Calcite-gypsum-sodium sulphate-halite
3. halite-calcite-gypsum-sodium sulphate
4. gypsum-sodium sulphate-calcite-halite
Q-84. There important basaltic flow sequences in India are the Panjal Trap (PT), the Rajmahal Trap (RT) and the Deccan Trap (DT). Which of the following sequences is correct with regard to their latitudinal positions and relative ages?
1. PT(north, oldest)-RT(central,intermediate)-DT(south, youngest).
2. PT(south, oldest)-RT(central,intermediate)-DT(north, youngest).
3. PT(north, youngest)-RT(central,intermediate)-DT(south, oldest).
4. PT(north, oldest)-RT(south, intermediate)
Q-85. Opening and closing of the ocean gateways resulted in global climate change. Which one of the following pairs is incorrect?
1. Opening of the Drake passage
2. Closing of the Central American seaway
3. Opening of the Tasmanian seaway
4. Break-up of Gondwanaland
Q-86. Global-scale events at ~ 1.8 Ga and ~ 0.9 Ga refer to
1. Amalgamation of Supercontinents ‘Columbia’ and ‘Rodinia’.
2. Amalgamation of Supercontinent ‘Colubia’ and fragmentation of Supercontinent ‘Rodinia’.
3. Fragmentation of Supercontinents ‘Columbia’ and ‘Rodinia’.
4. Fragmentation of Supercontinent ‘Columbia’ and amalgamation of Supercontinent ‘Rodinia’.
Q-87. The distribution of earthquake epicenters along a fault (F) across a mid-oceanic ridge (R) is shown below
The segment of the fault between the two ‘R’ s is a
1. Transform fault with dextral motion
2. Transform fault with sinisterly motion
3. Tran current fault with dextral motion
4. Tran current fault with sinisterly motion
Q-88. Given below is a list of ocean basins at various stages of evolution. Match them with. Their correct examples:
(i) Young (a) Mediterranean Sea
(ii) Mature (b) Pacific Ocean
(iii) Declining (c) Atlantic Ocean
(iv) Terminal (d) Red Sea
1. (i) – (b), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (c), (iv) – (d)
2. (i) – (a), (ii) – (c), (iii) – (b), (iv) – (d)
3. (i) – (d), (ii) – (c), (iii) – (b), (iv) – (a)
4. (i) – (a), (ii) – (b), (iii) – (c), (iv) – (d)
Q-89. Fold-thrust belt are associated with
1. Strike-slip basins and transform faults.
2. Formation of grabens and frequent volcanism.
3. Forearc basin, Ophiolite belt and foreland basin.
4. Volcanism and frequent seismicity only.
Q-90. Which one of the following statements about etch plains is incorrect?
1. They are associated generally with continental shield with low relief.
2. They generally form beneath regolith.
3. They are polygenetic and are formed in areas of significant epirogenic movements.
4. Their relief is not controlled by fluvial base level.
Q-91. An aquifer with a total volume of has a porosity of and specific retention of 5%. The aquifer gets replenished to its maximum capacity every day. What would be the maximum pumping rate at which water can be withdrawn for a period of 5 hours from the aquifer to maintain its specific yield capacity?
The diagram above shows the ratio of foraminiferal tests in a marine sediment core. Identify the correct answer.
1. A,C and E represent glacial periods.
2. A,D and F represent interglacial periods.
3. Only A and E represent interglacial periods.
4. A, C and E represent interglacial periods.
Vertical distributions of velocities of glacier/stream are shown above. Choose the correct statement.
1. A-stream channel and B-glacier.
2. A-glacier and B – stream channel
3. A and B are different stream channels.
4. A and B are different glaciers.
Rate of Movement
Identify the correct pair from the above table
1. A : Rock fall
2. B : Snow avalanche
3. C : Debris flow
4. D : Creep
The above table gives the stream power and particle size.
Identify the domain representing ripple mark.
Q-96. The following table show the half hourly rainfall recorded by an automatic rain gauge located in a watershed in the Himalaya
Rain Fall (mm)
Rain Fall (mm)
When is the maximum erosivity of rainfall during the day?
1. 10.00-11.00 AM
2. 10.30-11.30 AM
3. 12.00-1.00 PM
4. 11.30-12.30 PM
Q-97. The most important environmental factor for soil formation is
3. Wind Speed
Q-98. A meandering river typically does not develop where
1. Gradient is zero
2. Discharge to sediment load ration is low
3. Discharge to sediment load ratio is high
4. The topography is subdued
Q-99. Albedo of Earth’s surface increases during
1. Increased volcanic activity.
2. Expansion of ice sheets.
3. Increase in solar radiation.
4. Sea level rise
1. Form in the lee of a gap between two obstructions.
2. Are accumulation of sand in the lee and the shelter of an obstruction.
3. Form where wind sweep sand over a cliff.
4. Are flat topped sand ridges.
Q-101. In the Western Ghats if the annual rainfall regime declines below 3,000 mm and the average annual temperature increase to what changes will it bring in the photosynthetic activity and growth of vegetation?
1. Photosynthetic activity and rate of growth of vegetation will decline.
2. Photosynthetic activity will remain same but rate of growth of vegetation will increase.
3. Photosynthetic activity and rate of growth of vegetation will increase.
4. Photosynthetic activity will increase but rate of growth of vegetation will remain constant.
Q-102. The following diagram shows the classification of deltas according to the importance of fluvial, wave and tidal processes.
Using the diagram identify the correct shape of the delta.
1. A - Cuspate
2. D – Lobate
3. B – Arcuate
4. C – Bird foot
Q-103. Based on the values of y(x) given below, y(36)=
Q-104. A,B and C are three spherical shells of equal thickness and of radii 3,000 km, 4,000 km and 5,000 km, respectively, with a material of uniform density. If and are the gravity values on their respective surfaces, then
Q-105. A strongly magnetic spherical body of susceptibility is magnetized by induction in the Earth’s magnetic field F. the magnitude of induced magnetism in the body.
Q-106. Assume that the P wave velocities in the overlying and the underlying layers are 6 and respectively. Now, if we consider that the thickness of the overlying layer is 5 km, then the direct wave and the head wave will have the same travel time at distance of
Q-107. A of conducting ore body buried under a conducting medium of could not be located by electromagnetic methods utilizing a frequency of but could be located utilizing a frequency of 250Hz. The ore body line between
Q-108. In an electrical sounding with Winner configuration, resistance values of are measured for electrode spacings of 25 m, 50 m, and 75 m, respectively. Which of the following inferences is likely to be correct?
1. The resistivity of the layers decreases with depth
2. A high resistivity layer is sandwiched between two relatively low resistivity layers.
3. A low resistivity layer is sandwiched between two relatively low resistivity layers.
4. The resistivity of the layers increases with depth.
Q-109. Electric measurements are made over a homogeneous medium passing current electrodes and placing the potential electrodes at distances of 10 m and 20 m from one of the current electrodes. If the resistance measured is , the resistivity of the medium is
Q-110. If Then the Fourier transform of is
Q-111. Cross correlation of with ,and the convolution of with
1. Are different both in shape and magnitude
2. Are identical
3. Have equal magnitudes, but a reversed shape
4. Have the same shape, but differ in magnitude
Q-112. If an electric field of strength is injected in the ground and the strength of the recorded magnetic field is 1500 gamma, the corresponding apparent resistivity at time period 1000 s, is
Q-113. If a rock medium below an overburden is heated to sufficiently high temperatures, the stresses and weight in the overburden are related by the equation
114. What inference can be drawn from the following well log data?
Interval in m
1. A is oil bearing and B is water bearing
2. A is sandstone and B is shale.
3. A is water bearing and B is oil bearing
4. A is shale and B is sandstone.
Q-115. Match the following:
I. SP log A. Atomic number
II. Acoustic Log B. 21 cm
III. Dipmeter Log C. Positive deflection when formation water resistivity is less than mud filtrate resistivity
IV. PEF Log D. Cycle skipping
V. API Log width E. Measures micro resistivity
1. I-C, II-B, III-E, IV-D, V-A
2. I-C, II-E, III-B, IV-A, V-D
3. I-C,II-D, III-E,IV-A, V-B
Q-116. A seismological observatory A recorded a difference of 480 s between the arrival of the P and S waves due to a shallow focus earthquake. If another observatory B, away from A and in line with the epicenter, records a difference of 560 s, then the epicentral distance from A is
Q-117. are the gravity anomalies recorded on a horizontal plane underlain by a distribution of mass M. P is a point above the plane of observation, the z-axis being taken positive downwards. G is the Newton’s gravitational constant. The gravity anomaly at
Q-118. The time required for heat to conduct 1 km distance in the continental region of heat flow temperature gradient specific heat = and density would be around
Q-119. A geostationary satellite measures cloud albedo and Outgoing Longwave Radiation (OLR). Average values of OLR and in a month are 250 and 0.2, respectively. The daily solar insolation at the top of the atmosphere is during the same period. Then the net radiation absorbed by the Earth-atmosphere system is
Q-120. Scale analysis of the horizontal momentum equation reveals that the biggest and the smallest terms for a synoptic system, respectively, are
1. Molecular friction and pressure gradient
2. Pressure gradient and molecular friction
3. Pressure gradient and Coriolis
4. Coriolis and pressure gradient
Q-121. The ration of the thickness of the atmosphere from 1000 levels for isothermal conditions, with temperature of respectively, is
Q-122. How will the stability characteristic of the adiabatic ascent of an unsaturated moist air parcel be modified due to incorporation of ‘entrainment’ effects?
1. Ascending parcel will move to neutral equilibrium
2. Ascending parcel will be more unstable
3. Ascending parcel will be more stable
4. The stability of the ascending parcel with entrainment effects will be the same as that of the situation where there are no entrainment effects.
Q-123. An ensemble forecast represents average of
1. Different model runs
2. Same model runs with different initial conditions
3. Model runs using different physical parameterizations in a model
4. Satellite observed and model outputs
Q-124. The approximate number of grid points needed in a numerical model with horizonal grid resolution and 500m vertical resolution, with the topmost level fixed at 50 km heigh is
125.With regard to the tropical atmosphere, which of the following statement is true?
1. The atmosphere lose westerly momentum due to friction at the Earth-air interface
2. These regions are not affected by easterly waves
3. The atmosphere is conditionally unstable in the lower and middle troposphere
4. The height of the tropopause is always less than 10 km
Q-126. The Inter Tropical Convection Zone (ITCZ) is farthermost from the equator over the
1. African region during January.
2. Indian region during july.
3. African region during july.
4. Indian Ocean region during January.
Q-127. The total ozone column abundance (molecules) between 10 and 40 km, for the hypothetical ozone profile shown below is
Q-128. Dew point temperature is attained in the atmosphere when
1. Saturation is reached by addition of water vapour
2. Air cools by adiabatic lifting
3. Saturation is reached by isobaric cooling
4. Saturation is reached by evaporative cooling
Q-129. If both the Sun-Earth distance and the temperature of the Sun’s photosphere decrease by 50%, then the solar constant
1. Decreases to 25% of its original value
2.Increases to 400% of its original value
3. Decreases to 50% of its original value
4. Remains unchanged
Q-130. It is known that long term climate changes (such as ice ages) are caused by changes in the orbital parameters of the Earth. Which one of the following causes, changes the solar radiation received in a year by the Earth as a whole?
1. Eccentricity of the Earth’s orbit
2. Obliquity or tilt of the axis of the Earth
3. Precession of the equinoxes
4. Season of occurrence of perihelion
Q-131. Consider the following environmental temperature profile
Consider two unsaturated parcels A and B released into this atmosphere at and , respectively. Assuming a dry adiabatic lapse rate of which of the following statements is true?
1. Parcel A is trapped in the inversion
2. Parcel B is trapped in the inversion
3. Both parcels A and B escape the inversion
4. Both parcels A and B are trapped in the inversion
Q-132. The atmosphere has negative viscosity because of the transfer of
1. Zonal available potential energy to zonal available kinetic energy
2. Zonal kinetic energy to eddy kinetic energy
3. Zonal available potential energy to eddy available potential energy
4. Eddy kinetic energy to zonal kinetic energy
Q-133. Sea surface temperature (SST) is more easily retrieved using atmospheric window channels as compared to land surface temperature (LST) because
1. SST has a higher value than LST
2. Sea is more homogeneous than land with much lower horizontal temperature gradients
3. Over the sea there is a less likelihood of cloud formation, which ensures that the satellite radiometer measures SST and not the cloud top temperature
4. Over infrared wavelengths, sea is a better blackbody than land
Q-134. All tropical cyclones which form over the warm tropical oceans have a tendency to move towards poles. The reason for the above poleward motion is conservation of
1. Potential vorticity
2. Planetary vorticity
3. Relative vorticity
4. absolute vorticity
Q-135. The Arabian Sea is one of the world’s most biologically productive regions and a region of intense sub-surface oxygen minimum zone (OMZ.) What factors contribute to this phenomenon/what is the consequence?
1. Abundance of nano and picoplankton over micro plankton/ Fast nutrient recycling within the surface layer
2. Absence of microbial food web/sinking and deposition of organic rich particles on sea floor
3. Intense oxidation of organic matter in the subsurface depth/diffusion of nitrous oxide to the atmosphere
4. Excessive dissolved organic matter at surface/anoxic condition at surface
Q-136. Dissolved oxygen concentration in the Antarctic surface water is high due to low temperature and
1. Low biological production
2. High biological production
3. Low pressure
4. High pressure
Q-137. One of the potential approaches to combat global warming is iron fertilization of the nutrient low chlorophyll (HNLC) waters. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct in this context?
a. Drawdown of carbon dioxide
b. Diffusion of nitrous oxide from the ocean interior to the atmosphere
c. Community shift in favour of nanoplankton and picoplankton over diatoms
d. Reduced biodiversity
Q-138. If a water parcel is brought adiabatically from a depth of 100 m having a density of to a depth of the density is , then the parcel will accelerate
1. Downward at
2. Upward at
3. Downward at
4. Upward at
Q-139. An eastward barotropic current at encounters a small decrease in water depth due to a submarine ridge across its path. To conserve vorticity, the current will
1. Ascend along the ridge
2. Turn towards north
3. Descend along the ridge
4. Turn towards south
Q-140. Which of these marine ‘plants’ plays the same role as length on land?
Q-141. Arabian Sea has surface salinity > 36. This high salinity is due to
1. Advection of Persian Gulf Water
2. Advection of Red Sea Water
3. Upwelling of subsurface water
4. Excess evaporation over precipitation
Q-142. Which region of the global ocean has absorbed the maximum amount of anthropogenic carbon dioxide and why?
1. North Atlantic, because of deep water formation
2. Southern Ocean, because of low temperature
3. Western Arabian Sen and Peru margin, because of high biological productivity
4. Bay of Bengal because of lower surface salinity
Q-143. Match the phytoplankton group with their size
(a) Pico plankton (i) 20-200
(b) Femtoplankton (ii) 5-20
(c) Nanoplankton (iii)
(d) Microplankton (iv) < 0.2
Q-144. Siliceous/Calcitic /Aragonitic marine organisms, respectively, are
1. Diatoms, radiolarians/Coccoliths, foraminifera/pteropods, corals
2. Coccoliths, foraminifera/diatoms, radiolarians/pteropods, corals
3. Diatoms, radiolarians/pteropods, corals/Coccoliths, foraminifera
4. Din flagellates, cyan bacteria/Coccoliths, foraminifera /diatoms, radiolarians
Q-145. The Brunt-Vaisala frequency in the ocean water column is maximum for the
1. Surface mixed layer.
2. Deep ocean
3. Thermo cline
4. Oxygen minimum zone.
Q-146. During the last glacial maximum, the Arabian Sea could have, been more productive in some parts, possibly due to increased
1. Abundance of cold-loving species of plankton.
2. Cyclonic activity
3. Runoff from land
4. Vertical mixing.
Q-147. Ice-rafted debris-rich layers in the north Atlantic Pleistocene sedimentary record are associated with
1. Heinrich events
2. ENSO events
3. NAO events
Q-148. The ice accumulation rate over Greenland is higher than that over Antarctica because of
1. Lower temperature over Greenland
2. Lower sea surface temperature in the north Atlantic.
3. Lower solar insulations over Greenland
4. Isolation of Antarctica-Antarctic ocean current.
Q-149. Predominance of sinisterly coiled over dextrally coiled population of in sediment record suggests the presence of
1. Cold temperate water mass
2. Warm tropical water mass
3. Saline subtropical water mass
4. Cold up welled water
150. Concentration factor of an element M is defined as where Al refers to aluminium concentration and org and sw represent organism and seawater, respectively. For M whose concentration factor of 5,000 in the organism, what will be the concentration of M in seawater (Al concentration = 10 ppb and 0.2 ppm in water and organism, respectively)
1. 0.01 ppb
2. 0.1 ppb
3. 1.0 ppb
4. 10 ppb