CSIR Earth Sciences June 2012 Paper
Q-1. In still air fragrance of a burning incense stick will be smelt by an observer quickest when the experiment is carried out at
(a) Low altitude and high air temperature.
(b) High altitude and low air temperature.
(c) Low altitude and low air temperature.
(d) High altitude and high air temperature.
Q-2. How many squares are there in this figure?
Q-3. A mountain road has 3 sections of different stopes as shown. What is the average stop m of the entire climb?
Q-4. Which of the following graphs shows the concentration of a sugar solution as a function of the cumulative amount of sugar added in the process of preparing a saturated solution (the temperature ranting constant)?
Q-5. There are surd-piles which are geometrically similar but of different heights. The ratio of the masses of the send comprising two randomly chose piles will be equal to the ratio of the
(a) Pile heights.
(b) Squares of the pile heights
(c) Cubes of the pile heights.
(d) Cube-roots of the pile heights.
Q-6 There are two identical vessels of volume each, one empty, and the other containing a block of wood of weight w. The vessels are then filled with water up to the him. The two arrangements are shown as A and B in the figure. If the density of water is P and g is the acceleration due to gravity. Then
(a) A and B have equal weights.
(b) A is heavier than B by amount w.
(c) A is heavier than B by an amount
(d) B as heaver than A by an amount
Q-7. If the father has blood group O and mother has blood group AB, what are the possible blood groups of their children?
(a) O, AB, A
(b) A, B
(d) B, AB
Q-8. Nuelei of and accelerated through the same potential difference enter a uniform. Transverse magnetic field (Z=15 for P and Z=16 for S). As they emerge from the magnetic field.
(a) Boot nuelei emerge undefeated.
(b) is deflected less than
(c) is deflected more than
(d) Both are equally deflected.
Q-9. A person chewing a bubble gum did not experience car pain in a jet plane while landing where another person not chewing a gum had car pain. The reason could be
(a) Chewing gurn is a pain killer
(b) Chewing equilibrates pressure on both sides of the car drum
(c) Chewing gurn closes the ear drum
(d) Chewing distracts the person
Q-10. The reason why a lunar eclipse does not occur at every full moon is
(a) The position of the sun is not favourable at all full moons.
(b) The orbital planes of the moon and that of the carth are inclined to each other by a small angle.
(c) The shape of the earth is not a perfect sphere.
(d) The moon reflects only from one hemisphere.
Q-11. A boy throws a stone vertically upwards with a certain initial velocity. Which of the following graphs depicts the velocity as a function of time. If the acceleration due to gravity is assumed to be uniform and constant?
Q-12. A rigid uniform bar of a certain mass has two bobs of the same size. But with different densities p and 2p suspended identically from its ends.
When the bar is level on a fulcrum as show in the figure. d and are related by
Q-13. There are two points A and on the equator at longitudes and and two other points B and on the same longitudes, respectively, but at latitude The distances (along the latitudes) between the points, and B, are related by
Water is flowing through a tube as shown. The cross-sectional areas at A and C are equal. And greater than the cross-sectional area at B. If the flow is steady, then the pressure on the walls at B is
(a) Less than that at A and that at C.
(b) More than that at A and that at C.
(c) Same as that at A and that at C.
(d) More than that at A but less than that at C.
Q-15. Match the two lists
C. Silica sand
c. Plaster of paris
A B C D
(a) a b c d
(b) d c b a
(c) a c d b
(d) d a c b
Q-16. The dating method is not usually used for dating organic substance older than years. Because
(a) Such objects rarely contain carbon.
(b) Such objects accumulated after their formation.
(c) In those times there was no production of
(d) Most of the in the sample would have decayed.
Q-17. A seismograph reccives a S- wave 60s after it receives the P-wave. If the velocities of P-and S-waves are 7 km/s and 6 kms respectively, then distance of the seismic focus from the seismograph is
(a) 2520 km
(b) 42 km
(c) 7070 km
(d) 72 km
Q-18. The decay of a radioactive isotope P produces a stable daughter isotope D. The ratio of the number of atoms of D to the number of atoms of P after 2 half-lives would be
Q-19. The scatter plots represent the values measured by two similar instruments. Point a in the figures represents the true value. Which of the following is a correct description of the quality of these measurements?
1. Fig 1 : good accuracy. Good precision
Fig 2 : good accuracy. Good precision
2. Fig 1: Poor accuracy, Poor precision
Fig 2: good accuracy, Poor precision
3. Fig 1: Poor accuracy, Good precision
Fig 2: Poor accuracy, Poor precision
4. Fig 1 : Poor accuracy, Poor precision
Fig 2 : Poor accuracy, Good precision
Q-20. Even though the concentration of is the same at sea level and at high altitude, the photosynthetic rate is higher in a plant grown at sea level than in a plant (of the same species) grown at high altitude the reason for this is
(a) Light intensity is more at sea level
(b) Temperature is lower at higher at sea level
(c) Atmospheric pressure is higher at sea level
(d) Elative humidity is higher at sea level.
PART - B
Q-21. What is the litho static pressure at the base of a 35 km column of grantic crust with an average density of 2.8 gm?
(a) 8.2 kilobars
(b) 5.6 kilobars
(c) 9.8 kilobars
(d) 7.2 kilobars
Q-22. Which of the following represents the correct relative abundance of elements in the Earth’s crust?
Q-23. Which one of the following is a common response of rocks to increase in pore-fluid pressure?
Q-24. If represent the principal stresses, then a hydrostatic state of stress is characterized by following condition:
Q-25. Andean mountains-Atlantic Ocean – San Andreas fault represent one of the following sequences of plate boundaries.
Q-26. What can give the best idea about the source rock of sandstone?
(a) Pala current analysis
(b) Grain size
(c) Lathe fragments
(d) Weathering index
Q-27. There are many mechanisms by which saline fluids can cause disintegration of rocks. Which one is not a correct mechanism?
(a) Crystallization pressure of salt crystals
(b) Chemical reaction between minerals and saline fluids
(c) Hydration and expansion of salt crystals
(d) Then mal expansion of salt crystals
Q-28. Which one of the following chemical present on the landscape is the most effective agent of chemical weathering of rocks?
Q-29. Littoral current direction can be precisely determined by
(a) Convexity and concavity of the coast.
(b) Pattern of beach ridge and swale complex
(c) Spil shape and curvature.
(d) Presence of producing deltas
Q-30. The wavelength range of the microwave. Region of electromagnetic radiation is
Q-31. Desert pavements are surfaces characterized by a layer of coarse gravel. These are formed by
(a) Mechanical weathering and removal of sand and silt by rain water.
(b) Mechanical weathering and downward movement of sand and silt by eluviations
(c) Mechanical weathering and removal of sand and site by deflation
(d) Mass movement and winnowing by ground water
Q-32. Over the last 100 years climatic trends on the global seale have not been affected by
(a) Changes in orbital parameters.
(b) Variation in solar activity
(c) Human activity
(d) El-Nino Southern Oscillation.
Q-33. Crescent-shaped barchans tend to from when
(a) Transport rare are high or sand supply is limited.
(b) Transport rate are high or sand supply is unlimited.
(c) Transport rates are low or sand supply is limited.
(d) Transport rats are high and sand supply is unlimited.
Q-34. Headword erosion is responsible for
(a) Increase in the stream length and increase in catchment area.
(b) Increase in the stream length and decline in stream gradient.
(c) Increase in the catchment area and increase in stream gradient.
(d) Increase in stream slope and stream length.
Q-35. The matelote group which most closely match the composition of our solar system is
(a) Ordinary cbondrite.
(b) Carbonaceous contrite
(c) Iron meteorite
(d) Lunar meteorite
Q-36. Platinum group element is
(a) Lithophytes only
(b) Chalcoplule only
(c) Siderophile only
(d) Both chalcophile and Siderophile
Q-37. An igneous rock comprising predominantly of quartz and K-feldspar can be classified as:
Q-38. The concentration in wt% of conman salt (NaCl) in sea water is:
Q-39. What is the percentage of the total area of the ocean that overlies the continental shelf?
Q-40. The natural remnants magnetizations in two rock unit of the same age, but located at different latitudes have the same inclination, but differ in declination. Then the rock units have undergone
(a) Both longitudinal and rotation movement
(b) Longitudinal, but not rotational movement
(c) Rotational, but not longitudinal movement
(d) Neither rotational, nor longitudinal movement
Q-41. Two rock unit A and B of identical magnetic character and located at latitudes and respectively, are magnetized by induction in the Earth’s magnetic field. Then the magnetization in A is.
(a) Identical with the one in B
(b) Stronger than in B, but dips gently
(c) Weaker than in B, but dips steeply
(d) Stronger than in B and dips steeply
Q-42. If are resistivity’s of sea water, and rain water, then which of the following statements is true?
Q-43. As compared to near surface geological targets, the geophysical response of deeper geological targets will have.
(a) Larger amplitude and longer wavelength
(b) Smaller amplitude and longer wavelength
(c) Smaller amplitude and smaller wave-length
(d) Longer amplitude and smaller wavelength.
Q-44. A P-wave incident on a reflector at an angle is reflected back into the medium as
(a) a P phase at and an S phase at an angle greater than
(b) a P phase at and an S phase at an angle less than
(c) P and S phases at
(d) a phase at an angle greater than and an S phase at less than
Q-45. An isostatically compensated elevated land mass is associated with
(a) Strong negative compensated elevated land mass is associated with
(b) Strong negative Bouguer anomaly and almost no free-air anomaly
(c) Almost no Bouguer anomaly and strong negative free-air anomaly
(d) Almost no Bouguer and free-air anomalies.
Q-46. F,H and V, the vectors representing the Earth’s magnetic field and its horizontal and vertical components respectively, are connected by the relation
Q-47. In Sorue materials the strain does not reach a stable value immediately after the application of stress, but rises gradually to a stable value. This type of strain response is a characteristic of
(a) Elastic materials
(b) Inelastic materials
(c) Plastic material
(d) Visco-elastic materials
Q-48. In a racially homogeneous and isotropic earth, which of the following waves will not be generated due to an earthquake?
(c) Scattered wave
(d) Surface wave.
Q-49. Which of the following has the lowest value of specific heat?
(a) Inner core
(b) Outer core
(c) Lowest mantle
(d) Upper mantle
Q-50. Amongst the following minerals which one has the least number of powder diffraction peaks?
Q-51. The lilt of the Earth’s axis of rotation with respect to the plane of its orbit varies between 21.8 and 24.4 over a period of about
(a) 19,000 years
(b) 23,000 years
(c) 100,000 years
(d) 41,000 years
Q-52. The surface expression of the lithosphere descending into the asthenosphere is known as
(a) Island arc
(c) Benioff Zone
Q-53. Impact of ocean acidification will be maximum on
Q-54. Which one of the following sequences represent the corrdct density order of the crust-mantle-core and bulk earth. Respectively (density in )?
Q-55. The decay of Rn to is by
(a) Negatron decay
(b) Positron decay
(c) Alpha decay
(d) Electron capture
Q-56. Eutrophication is an offshoot of increased anthropogenic activity. This phenomenon would, in the long run, lead to an increase in:
(a) Environmental assimilation capacity
(b) Habitat perturbation and retardation
(c) Oxygen effluxes
Q-57. In the following profiles of plankton production and respiration, identify the points that represent compensation and critical depths
(a) A is critical depth and B is compensation depth
(b) A is compensation depth and B is Critical depth
(c) C is compensation depth and A is critical depth
(d) A is compensation depth and C is critical depth
Q-58. The process of nitrification can be described as
(a) Reduction of nitrate to ammonium
(b) Oxidation of ammonium to nitrate
(c) Oxidation of ammonium to nitrogen
(d) Reduction of nitrate to molecular nitrogen
Q-59. Which one of the following element’s residence time is less than that of the residence time of sea water ?
Q-60. Overall, day to day variation in the sea surface temperature in the global oceans can have a maximum range of
Q-61. The Bowen’s ratio that measures the ratio of sensible to latent beat fluxes from the sea surface to the atmosphere above, is 0.45 at This difference is because.
(a) The Southern hemisphere receives less radiation
(b) Winds are weaker in the southern hemisphere
(c) Southern hemisphere is cooler than the nor them hemisphere
(d) Southern hemisphere has lesser continental area and lacks the advection of cold air in winter
Q-62. How will the following two parameters change with latitude keeping the wind stress constant?
(1). Depth to which the water is influenced by wind and (2). The surface speed of the current
(a) They increase with latitude in both the hemispheres
(b) They decrease with latitude in both the hemispheres
(c) They increase with latitude in the southern hemisphere and decrease with latitude in the northern hemisphere.
(d) They increase with latitude in the southern hemisphere and decrease with latitude in the northern hemisphere
Q-63. During the southwest monsoon, the Somali current that flows in the western Arabian Sea is 250 km wide, 200m deep with a mean speed of The water flux in Sverdrup’s is
Q-64. In Polar Regions, deep waters from in the surface by cooling and sinking. The typical temperature of such waters is
Q-65. The freezing point of seawater
(a) Increases with salinity
(b) Decreases with salinity
(c) IS independent of salinity
(d) Increases with evaporation
Q-66. Cyclones are more prominent in the Bay of Bengal than in the Arabian Sea due to
(a) Higher surface temperature of Bay of Bengal
(b) Stronger winds over the Arabian Sea
(c) Large sediment deposition by the Himalayan rivers
(d) Large fresh water input from land
Q-67. Ultraviolet radiation from the sun is mostly absorbed by the
(b) Ocean surface
(c) Land surthe face
Q-68.Identify the correct diagram from the options given below that shows the relation between relative humidity (%) in a cloud and the equilibrium cloud droplet radius
Q-69. Which of the following surface would tend to heat up the lease, given the same amount of insulation?
(d) Bare soil
Q-70. The horizontal scale and period of Ross by waves are:
(a) Hundreds of kilometers and several
(b) Thousands of kilometers and several days
(c) Hundreds of meters and several months
(d) Hundreds of meters and several years
(A) If a ore deposit undergoes hydrographic dispersion. Which one is expected to show greater anomaly?
4. Cu & Pb
(B). The coal belonging to maceral group vitrine dominantly contains
(2) Cell walls of vascular plants
(3) Oxidized plant martial
(4) Resin and algae
(C). The figure shows a ternary plot of C,H and O in the composition fields of peat and coal in relation to oil and oil shale
Which one of the following sequence correctly represent filed I,II,III and IV shown in the above figure?
(1) Oil shale – Anthracite – Oil – Peat
(2) Oil – anthracite - peat
(3) Peat – anthracite – Oil shale – oil
(4) Oil – anthracite – peat – Oil shale
Q:-72. (A) The Miller Index (111) in a normal class represent which one of the following crystal forms?
1. Dodecahedron & cube
2. Cube & pyritohedron
3. Dodecahedron & Trahedrom
4. Octahedron & tetrahedrom
(B) which one of the following crystal systems shows both (II0) and (0II) plants in their diffraction pattern, separately?
(C) The figure below represents a crystal lattice. Identity its corresponding reciprocal lattice
Q:-73. (A) Which one the following figures represent the correct direction of normal stress and shear stress components due to force ‘F’ on the given plane AB?
(B) The following figure shows the bedding the bedding cleavage relationships on two different on two different outcrops of a folded sandstone bed. Identify the correct statement
1. Sequenes at both the outcrops are overtrumped
2. Sequences at both the outcrops are right-side up (normal)
3. Sequences at outcrops (i) is overtrumped and right side up at outcrop (ii)
4. Sequences at outcrop (i) is normal overtrumped at outcrop (ii)
(C) Which of the following two pair of strike slip faults are expected to show transpersonal and transpersonal deformation in the overlapping zones?
1. (i) -tranpression, (ii) -transtension
2. (i) -transgression, (ii) - transgression
3. (i) -transtension, (ii) -transgression
4. (i) –transtension, (ii) –transtension
Q:-74. (A) Which one of the following statements about the past and present extent of ice-cap and glaciers is not true?
1. The present area of volume under the Antarctic ice cap is roughly six time more than those of Greenland icecap
2. during the last glaciations the Antarctic and Lauren tide ice caps were identical in terms of area and volume
3. At the maximum extent of glacial ice about two third of the Earth’s surface was covered by ice-caps and glaciers
4. Unlike during the glacial periods the extent and volume of ice cap is maximum today in the southem hemisphere
(B) Which one of the following proxies does not provide a near annual ambient temperature or precipitation record?
2. Lake verves
3. Tree rings
(C) Pre-Holocene events that coincided with the destruction of nor them hemisphere ice shelves and release of large volume of sea ice, icebergs and fresh water into the oceans are known as
1. Heinrich events
2. Danger- Oeschger events
3. Younger Dryas
4. Bond events
Q:-75. (A) Which amongst the following mineral sequences depicts the increasing metamorphic grade of argillaceous sediments?
1. Biotte – kainite – Garnet – Staurolite - Chlorite
2. Chlorie – Garnet – Bothe – Staurolite – Kyanite
3. Cholrie – Biotile – Garnet – Staurolite- Kyanite
4. Garnet – Biotile – Garnet – Kyanite – Staurolite
Q:-76. (A) Pale environmental interpretation employing microfossil record is the key input in petroleum system analysis. The continental margins are the potential area for the hydrocarbon exploration which of the following microfossil groups is expected to be most abundant in marginal sediments?
1. Radio Lana
2. Benthic foraminifera
4. Planktic foraminifera
(B) What are the principal factor controlling the morphological characteristics of benthic foraminifera and their distribution in marginal sediments?
1. Sea surface salinity and temperature
2. Dissolved oxygen in water column
3. Vertical temperature and salinity gradients
4. Sea bottom oxygen condition, organic carbon flux and bathymetry
(C) High abundance of elongated and flattened benthic foraminifers indicators
1. High organic carbon flux and low oxygen condition
2. Low organic carbon flux and high oxygen condition
3. High organic carbon flux and high oxygen condition
4. Low organic carbon flux and low oxygen condition
Q:-77. (A) The ocean seaways/gateways play a critical role in the evolution of global ocean circulation, climate and marine biota. What is the approximate liming of closing of panama isthmus?
(B) The opening of the Tasman Gateway occurred due to the separation of
1. Australia from Antarctica during
2. South America from Antarctica during
3. Australia from Antarctica during
4. Australia from Southeast Asia during
(C) The development of circum – Antarctic Circulation and as a consequence thermal isolation of the Antarctica triggering global cooling in the Cenozoic occurred due to
1. Opening of Tasman Gateway and closing of Panama Isthmus
2. Opening of Drake Passage and closing of Panama Isthmus
3. Closing of Indonesian Seaway and Panama Isthmus
4. Opening of Drake Passage and Tasman Gateway
Q:-78. (A) For a basaltic magma undergoing fractional crystallization, element A,B, and C in the following diagram represent
1. A – incompatible; B-neutral; C-compatible
2. A-incompatible; B-compatible; C – neutral
3. A-compatible; B-neutral; C-incompatible
4. A-nature; B-compatible; C-incompatible
(B) From the following schematic REE patterns of different minerals, identify the correct match
1. A-garnet; B-plagioclase; C-monazite; D-amphibole
2. A-plagioclase; B-garnet; C-monazite; D-amphibole
3. A-plagioclase; B-monazite; C-garnet; D- amphibole
4. A-monazite; B-plagioclases; C- amphibole; D-garnet
(C) The following P-T diagram depicts four metamorphic reaction A,B,C, and D.
Which one of the following statement is correct?
1. A is a geothermometer and B is a geobarometter
2. B is a geobarometter and A is a geobarometter
3. C is a geobarometter and D is a geobarometter
4. D is a geobarometter and C is a geobarometter
Q:-79. (A) Which one of the following phase equilibria diagrams correctly represent represents the formation of sub-solves granites?
(B) S-type granites are considered to have formed by partial melting of politic sedimentary rocks. What are the characteristic model minerals in the S-type granites?
1. Muscovite – Sillimantite – Garnet
2. Hornblende - Corundum – Aemite
3. Muscovite – Garnet – Aemite
4. Aemite – Reibeckite – Corundum
(C) A granite is formed by batch melting of basaltic source with 2 ppm of Rb ( -0.01). What will be Rb concentration in the garnet melt?
Q:-80. (A) Paleocene sedimentary rocks are developed in the Himalaya, and the shelf basins of Kutch-Saurashtra, western Rajasthan, and Tiruchirapally – Pondicherry and Kerala. The Paleocene succession in this area exhibit spatial and temporal variation in litho- and bio – facies. This of the following microfossil groups is commonly used for biostraligraphic subdivision of the coastal and Himalayan marine Paleocene succession?
1. Planktic foraminifera
4. Larger foraminifera
(B) The following list provides pairs of rock formations representing stratigraphic equivalents. Which one of the following is incorrect?
1. Langpur Formation – Pondicherry Formation
2. Subathu Limestone – Pondicherry Formation
3. Laisong Formation – Kopili Formation
4. Langpur Formation – Kopili Formation
(C) Which one of the following formation is rich in lignite with its correct stratigraphic are?
1. Palana Formation – Paleocene
2. Disang Formation – Eocene
3. Subathu Formation – Eocene
4. Kopili Formation – Oligocene
Q: 81. Limestone deposition plays an important role in carbon sequestration and climate change on a geological timescale. Limestones are polygenetic in origin and they can be detrital, Chemical or biochemical in origin
(A) Which of the following statement is not correct regarding limestone?
1. Calcarenites are found to occur with quartz arenites
2. Dolomites are formed after limestone
3. The coarsely crystalline calcite is called midrate
4. Fossil skeletal materials are abundant
(B) Which is not related to limestone depositional environmental?
2. Hadal Zone
3. Tidal flat
(C) Which statement is true for weathering of limestone?
1. Causes ocean acidification
2. has no effect on sequestration on a geological timescale
3. Favored in arid climate
4. Makes groundwater soft
Q:-82. (A) If Earth’s axis of inclination to the plane of revolution increases from . Then in the North Pole region, compared to the present,
1. Summer become warmer and winters colder
2. Both summer and winter become warmer
3. Both summer and winter become colder
4. Summer become colder and winter warmer
(B) If and are annual and daily average insulations at a given latitude respectively, then their maximum value are respectively observed at
1. North pole and tropics
2. Tropics and North Pole
3. Tropics and mid latitude
4. South pole and min latitude
(C) Suppose the Sun-Earth distance doubles. Then relative to its presents value the solar constant will become
3. Four timer
Q:-83. (A) Getting the wet bulb temperature involves
1. Isobaric and isothermal processes
2. Isobaric and constant volume process
3. Isobaric and adiabatic process
4. Adiabatic and isothermal processes
(B) Evaporation process is
1. an isothermal and isobaric process
2. an isothermal and constant volume process
3. an Isobaric and adiabatic process
4. a constant volume and constant pressure process
(C) Measuring dew point temperature involves an
1. Isobaric process
2. Isothermal process
3. Adiabatic process
4. Isentropic process
Q:-84. If lg of water evaporates in 1 kg of air in an isobaric process, then temperature will
1. Increase by
2. Decrease by
3. Increase by
4. Decrease by
(B) 2 kg heat is added to air under (a) constant volume process, and (b) an isobaric process if the initial If the initial temperature are the same and equal to 300ko, then which statement is correct?
(C) If and are the works done by a parcel of air lifted to 1 km height in unstable, neutral and stable atmosphere respectively, then
Q:-85. are the temperature of two air parcels and . Both are at th same pressure and density. If are their specific humidifies and are their virtual temperature, respectively, then
(B) In a tephigram, the co-ordinate axes represent the variables
1. Temperature and pressure
2. Pressure and volume
3. Temperature and entropy
4. Potential temperature and pressure
(C) If are most and dry adiabatic lapse rate respectively, and is the environmental lapse rate, Which among the following statement is always true?
Q:-86. (A) In a thunderstorm, charges are mainly generated at
1. Cloud base
2. Cloud top
3. at freezing level
4. between levels
(B) In a typical thunderstorm
1. Negative charges are at the cloud top
2. Positive charge are at the cloud top
3. Cloud top is neutral
4. Middle of the cloud is neutral
(C) When lightning strikes the ground
1. Positive charge is deposited on the ground
2. Negative charge moves upward from the ground
3. Positive charge moves upward from the ground
4. Negative charge moves up from the ground
Q: - 87. (A) For addressing which of the following problems, a coupled ocean-atmosphere model is not essential?
1. Predicting the path of a tropical cyclone
2. Seasonal prediction of the monsoon
3. ENSO prediction
4. Climate prediction
(B) In a spectral model, variables are approximated by periodic function along(x,y,z respectively, refer to zonal,meridional and vertical directions )
1. Only the x direction
2. Only the y direction
3. Both x and z direction
4. Both x and y directions
(C) The largest amplitude of Interannual variability is observed in the following tropical ocean basin
1. West Pacific
2. Central Arabian Sea
3. Bay of Bengal
4. East Pacific
Q:-88. (A) Longitudinal extent of westerly winds in the equatorial region is maximum during
1. Summer monsoon time in La-Nino years
2. Winter monsoon time in La-Nino years
3. Summer monsoon time in EL-Nino years
4. Winter monsoon time in EL-Nino years
(B) Indian summer monsoon rainfall has never been excess in
1. La- Nino years
2. EL-Nino years
3. Leap years
4. Indian ocean dipole years
(C) If excess heat is added to the ocean-atmosphere system, then the global tempreature will increase will increase by in about
1. ten years
2. fifty years
3. hundred years
4. ten thousand years
Q:-89. (A) Geopotential shows a high over a certain area. This corresponds to a
1. Surface pressure low
2. Surface temprature low
3. Surface heat low
4. Surface pressure high
(B) In a monsoon depression, the center of low pressure tilts towards the
(C) The height of trade wind inversion is typically
Q:-90. The relationships between salinity , temperature at which maximum density occurs for sea water and its freezing temperature are given by
(A) At what value of salinity does equal ?
(B) Ice from more easily in
1. Low salinity and shallow water
2. Hight salinity and shallow water
3. Low salinity and deep water
4. High salinity and deep water
(C) The rate at which sea ice forms is a function of
1. Air temperature only
2. Air temperature and salinity
3. Air temperature and conductivity
4. Air temperature and wind speed
Q:-91. (A) The Antarctic circumpolar current ids driven by
1. Strong circumpolar vortex in the polar atmosphere
2. Strong north – westerly winds which prevail between about and
3. The intense solar radiation received in December – January – February
4. The intense solar radiation received in June – July – February
(B) Maintenance of a permanent tongue of pack-ice-across the north them part of the weddel sea is helped by
1. Higher precipitation
2. Atmospheric vortex
3. Weakly developed circumpolar gyre
4. Colder temperatures
(C) The typical time taken by large by large Antarctic ice-bergs (~tens of kilometers in length) to melt is
Q:-92. (A) Microbial loop, said to be seasonally significant in the following situation?
1. Ohgotrophic regions
2. Eutrophic water
3. Mesotrophic locations
4. Polar seas
(B) Which one of the following sequences in marine trophodynamics depicts the microbial loop?
(C) Identity the correct set of primary consumers in the following options
1. Sharks and Storks
2. Crabs and croakers
3. Calanids and Anthozoans
4. Salmons and barracudas
Q:-93. (A) Which of the following has the lowest albedo ?
2. Desert sand
3. Bare soil
4. Calm water
(B) At the same latitude season and time of day would of day would you expect the atmosphere above a sandy beach to be warmed more or less then than that above a pine wood?
1. Atmosphere above pine wood is warmer then that over sandy beach
2. Atmosphere above sandy beach is warmer then that over pine wood
3. Atmosphere above pine wood and sandy beach are equally warmer
4. Atmosphere above sandy beach is doubly warmer then that over pine wood
(C) What is the main different in origins of ice sheets that cover the Arctic and Antarctic region?
1. Arctic ice is mainly sea-ice where Antarctic ice comes from the Antarctic continent
2. Antarctic ice is mainly sea-ice while Aretic ice comes from the Arctic continent
3. Ice in both the regions is sea-ice
4. in both the regions ice come from the respective continents
Q:-94. (A) One of the serious global concerns in recent time is increasing trend in ocean acidification among other perceived threats, it is believed to affect marine life rather adversely. Overall, ocean acidification seems seems to have decreased the global ocean
(B) Which one of the following combination of factors could worsen ocean acidification scenario?
1. Fossil fuel burning + ocean dumping + Tsunamis
2. Tsunamis + Acid rain + themohaline circulation
3. Occan dumping + themohaline circulation + fossil fuel burning
4. Tsunamis + themohaline circulation + Occan dumping
(C) Anthropogenic carbon dioxide has penetrated the deepest into north Ailanthic because
1. It is a cold region and dissolved more in colder waters
2. It is located between North America and Europe where most of the is produced
3. It is a region which receives heat from the tropes Gulf Stream
4. Deep water forms there and therefore the depth of sinking of anthropogenic is higher there.
Q:-95. (A) If the angle between the wind and the surface current is given by
Q:-96. The following set of figures depict annual phytoplanlcton growth cycles in different oceanic regions As is well understood, their growth is affected by physical, chemical and some biological factors
Given your understanding of seasonal variations of all such factors, answer the following
(A) In which world ocean regions would the phytoplankton biomass be high only during June-August period as shown I Fig a?
2. Polar regions
3. Tropical Pacific
4. Bay of Bengal
(B) Which one of the following condition best describes the major peak in phytoplankton
Growth shown in Fig b?
1. Shallow mixed layer in the region
2. Increased day length from February onwards
3. Low ambient nutrients in the region
4. High zooplankton biomass in the region
(C) What cause the more or less uniform but moderate phytoplankton growth shown in Fig. e?
1. Invariable zooplankton biomass throughout the year
2. Low phytoplankton diversity indices during all moths
3. Similar levels of solar radiation and nutrient concentrations
4. Deep mixed layer all through the year
Q:-97. Indian ranks among the first fishing nations of the world. The average annual landing of marine fish and shellfish the last two decades from the Indian coast is about 2.7 million tonner.
(A) The percentage contribution of fish landing from the east coast of Indian to total
(B)The coastline is the shortest for the Indian maritime state of
4. West Bengal
View Answer with Explanation
(C) The major east coast state capturing Bombay Duck is
1. Tamil Nadu
4. West Bengal
Q:-98. (A) The transform function of an input signal Passing throught a filter is not display
Q:-99. A mountain range of average height and density isassociated with a Bouguer anomaly of milligals.
(A) Which of the following statement is true?
1.The isostatic compensation of the mountains cannot be inferred in the absence of density values of the crust and the mantle.
2.The mountain range is isostatically undercompensated
3.The mountain range is isostatically undercompensated
4.The mountain range is isostatically overcompensated
(B) If a thick material is removed from the mountain range, without giving any scope for isostatic readjustment, the Bougure anomaly would be
4. Less than – 470 milligals
(C) If the mountain range attains isostatic equilibrium after certain time, the height of the mountain would be (assume a density contrast of at the Moho)
Q:-100. A two-dimensional sheet-like body of susceptibility K strikes at the magnetic latitude of and gets magnetized by induction in the Eath’s magnetic field F. Recall that the magnetic anomaly caused by a sheet-like body is of the from where C and Q are constants related to magnetization, dip and thickness of the sheet.
(A) The dip of effective magnetization in the sheet is
(B) The intensity of effective magnetization is
(C) Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The positions of the maximum and minimum anomalies on the positions of the maximum and minimum anomaly
1. Statements I and II are true.
2. Statement I is true; II is false.
3. Statement I is false; If is true;
4. Statement I and II are false.
Q:-101. The two-way travel time in the case of two horizontal reflector are and respectively and the RMS velocities are and respectively. The the interval velocity between two reflectors is
(B) The dip of a layer is and its RMS velocity is . Then the stacking velocity is
(C) For a two layer case, the reflection coefficient of upper and lower layer respectively is and . separated by , and the source pulse is given as . If the sampling interval of the seismic trace is the composite wavelet is
Q:-102. (A) A SP long crossing a shale formation and entering a porous bed shows the SP anomalies changing from
1. A positive value to negative with the point of inflection coinciding with the interface
2. A negative value to positive with the point of inflection coinciding with the interface
3. A positive value to negative with no clear indication of interface
4. A negative value to positive with no clear indication of interface
(B) A Sandston saturated with gas and oil and oil is detected from SP, resistivity and acoustic velocity logs by a destine SP anomaly break from positive to negative associated with.
1. Low resistivity and high velocity
2. High resistivity and low velocity
3. Low resistivity and low velocity
4. High resistivity and high velocity
(C) Sulphur, which occurs mainly in limestone may be identified by a density or acoustic log because of its
1.Low density and large transit time
2. Low density and low transit time
3. High density and large transit time
4. High density and low transit time.
Q:-103. (A) EM waves are elliptically polarized when primary and secondary field are at the
1. Same frequency and same phase
2. Same frequency and different phase
3. Different frequency and same phase
4. Different frequency and different phase
(B) For a material of resistivity of , the phase difference between the primary and secondary fields and the ellipicity of the polarized EM field will be respectively
(C) How do the real and imaginary parts of the response function vary with increasing response parameter (Q)?
1. Both increase asymptotically to attain a maximum of 1.0
2. Both decrease asymptotically to attain maxima of 0.0
3. The real part increases asymptotically to attain a maximum of 1.0 while imaginary
4. The real Part increases to attain a maximum of while imaginary part increases to attain a maximum of at and decreases thereafter, while the imaginary part increases asymptotically to attain a maximum of
Q:-104. (A) If and represent the natural and resonant frequencies, respectively, of a seismometer, in which of the following case, it would behave as a displacement meter?
(B) An S-wave propagating through the Earth shows a time difference of 1.0 sec between its arrivals on the radial and transverse components. Considering an average velocity of and anisotropy of , the thickness of the layer would be
(C) The velocity of tsunami wave traveling through an open occam of depth is about
Q:-105. (A) Three masses M,2M and 3M are distributed inside three spheres A,B and C of radio R, 2R and 3R respectively. The total normal gravitational fluxes over A,B and C respectively are connected by the relation
(B) For the given situation (see fig), where and a magntotelluric sounding was carried out at A, The obtained apparent resistivity will be
Equal due to
Equal due to
Parallel off set due to
Parallel off set due to
(C) An electromagnetic wave propagating in free space with a period of see has a wavelength of
Q:-106. (A) Increase m the sinuosity index of a river is not associated with
1. An increase m suspended to bed load ratio
2. A decline in flow velocity
3. A decline in with-depth ratio
4. An increase in sediment load
The above table gives the hypsometric integral for four river basins. Identify the incorrect interpretation of the integral
1.Basin C has higher relative relief then basin A
2.Basin D is located largely over a plateau
3.Basin A is dominated by plains
4.Basin C has more area at higher elevation than basin D
The above table gives the rate of change in stream number with stream order when plotted on a sem-log graph paper. Note all the four stream have the same order. Which of the following statement is correct?
1.The number of lower order streams is highest in basin D
2.The number of lower order streams is minimum in basin C
3.The number of lower order streams is maximum in basin C
4.Basin A has more number of lower order streams than basin B
Q:-107. (A) Suppose two alluvial rivers (X and Y) have the same bank full discharge channel slopes. The slope of river and slope of river . Then
(i) River Y is meandering and single thread
(ii)River X is multi-thread and braided
(iii)River Y is either braided or straight
(iv)River X is either meandering or anabranching
1.(i) and (ii) are true
2.(iii) and (iv) are true
3.(iii) is true and (iv) is false
4.(i) is true and (iii) is false
(B) A large river cutting across a ride will not display one of the following change in its morpj=hology and hydraulic properties.
1. Decrease in the width depth ratio
2. Increase in the flow velocity
3. Decrease in channel cross-sectional area
4. Increase in mean discharge
(C) The exponents of hydraulic geometry equation will display one of the following relationship for a river over the alluvial fan
Q:-108. There are five chemical fractions which can be selectively extracted from a floodplain soil as shown below:
Fraction I - Exchangeable
Fraction II- Bound to carbonate
Fraction III – Bound to amorphous Fe and Mn hydroxide/oxides
Fraction IV – Bound to organic matter
Fraction V – Residual
Based on the above information answer the following:
(A) In a well-aerated soil arsenic may occur in the extraction fraction
(B) Which extraction fraction is responsible for the phosphorus availability to the plants
(C) Which excretion fraction is micro bialy oxidized to mobilized arsenic to the groundwater?
The diagram show stability limits of natural water at the Earth’s surface in term of Eh and pH at The limits are based on partial on pressure of oxygen of 1 and
(B) Low pH value of mine water is due to
1. Mineral weathering at higher Eh
2. Mineral weathering at lower pH
3. Oxidation of organic matter
4. Microbial activities
(C) Water of organic rich impeded sous will plot in the stability zone characterized by
1. Moderate to high pH, low Eh
2. High pH, low Eh
3. High Eh, low pH
4. High pH, moderate Eh
Q:-110. (A) In a magma chamber during the process of differentiation if a large amount of granitic gneiss rock is added due to chamber collapse and assimilated then the magma change its composition rowaed:
In the above triangular plot at point ‘x’ what mineral is expected to from under pyroxene hornfels facies?
(C) Which one of the following mineral assemblage indicates quarts – albeit – muscovite – chlorite subfacies metamorphism of a basic schist.
1. Quarts – albite – muscovite
2. Calcite – epidote – tremolite – quarts
3. Albite – epidote – chiorite – calcite – sphere – quartz
4. Quarts – muscovite – Chlorite – albite
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