# CSIR Earth Sciences June 2013 Paper

Q:-1. What is the angle between the minute and hour hand of a clock at 7:35?

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q:-2. A stream of ants goes from point A to point B and return to A along the same path. All the ants move at a constant speed and from any given point 2 ants pass per second one way. It takes 1 minute for an ant to go from A to B. How many returning ants will an ant meet in its Journey from A to B?

1. 120

2. 60

3. 240

4. 180

Q:-3.

The capacity of the conical vessel shown above is V. It is filled with water up to half its height. The volume of water in the vessel is

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q:-4. A large tank filled with water is to be emptied by removing half of the water present in it every day. After how many days will there be closest to water lest in the tank?

1. One

2. Two

3. Three

4. Four

Q:-5. N is a natural number. If is odd, which of the following is following is true?

(A). n is odd

(B). is odd

(C) Is even

1. A only

2. B only

3. C only

4. A and B only

Q:-6. Suppose you expand the product how many terms will have only one x and rest y’s?

1. 1

2. 5

3. 10

4. 20

Q:-7. A 16.2m long wooden log has a uniform diameter of 2 m. To what length the

Should be cut to obtain a piece of volume?

1. 3.5m

2. 7.0m

3. 140.0m

4. 22.0m

Q:-8. What is the last digit of?

1. 7

2. 9

3. 3

4. 1

Q:-9. A lucky man finds 6 pots of gold coins. He counts the coins in the first four pots to be 60, 30, 20 and 15, respectively. If there is a definite progression, what would be the number of coins in the next two pots?

1. 10 and 5

2. 4 and 2

3. 15 and 15

4. 12 and 10

Q:-10. A bee leaves its hive in the morning and after flying for 30 minute due south reaches a garden and spends 5 minutes collecting honey. Then it flies for 40 minutes due west and collects honey in another garden for 10 minutes. Then it returns to the hive taking the bee away from its hive? (Assume that the bee flies at constant speed)

1. 85 min

2.155min

3. 135n

4. Less than 1 hour

Q:-11. Find the missing number:

1. 1

2. 0

3. 2

4. 3

Q:-12. In solving a quadratic equation of the from, one student took the wrong value of a and got the roots as 6 and 2; while another student took wrong value o f b and got the roots as 6 and 1. What are the correct values of a and respectively?

1. 7 and 12

2. and 4

3. -7 and 12

4. 8 And 12

Q:-13. The distance between two oil rigs is 6km. What will be the distance between these rigs in maps of 1:50000 and 1:5000 scales, respectively?

1. 12m and 1.2cm

2. cm and 12cm

3. 120cm and 12cm

4. 12cm and 120cm

Q:-14. A bird perched at the top of a 12m high tree sees a centipede moving towards the base of the tree from a distance equal to twice the height of the tree. The bird flies along a straight line to catch the centipede. If both move at the same speed, at what distance from the base of the base of the tree will the centipede be picked up by the bird?

1. 16m

2. 9m

3. 12m

4. 24m

Q:-15. An ant goes from A to C in the figure crawling only on the lines and taking the least length of path. The number of ways in which it can do so it

1. 2

2. 4

3. 5

4. 6

Q:-16. A point is chosen at random from a circulate disc shown below. What is the probability that the point lies in the sector OAB?

Q:-17.

A ray of light, after getting reflected twice from a hemispherical mirror of radius R (see the above figure), emerges parallel to the incident ray. The separation of the incident ray. The Separation of the original incident ray and the final reflected ray is

1. R

2.

3.

4.

Q:-18. A king ordered that a golden crown be made from him from of gold of silver. The goldsmith took away some amount of gold and replaced it by an equal amount of silver and crown when made weighed Archimedes knew that under water gold lost of its weight, while silver lost. When the crown was weighed under water, it was how much gold was stolen by the goldsmith?

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q:-19. In the figure how many number of circle in the black space?

Part ‘B’

Q:-21. Which one of the following represents the correct sequence of events leading to the buildup of oxygen in the Earth’s atmosphere?

1. Condensation of water, appearance of life, weathering

2. Appearance of life, condensation of water, weathering

3. Condensation of water, weathering, appearance of life

4. Condensation of water, weathering, appearance of life

Q:-22. The isotope is produced in the Earth’s atmosphere by the interaction of cosmic rays with

1. Resulting in release of an particle

2. Absorbing a neutron and releasing a proton

3. Resulting in the addition of two particles

4. Absorbing a neutron

Q:-23. For the determination of Palaeomagnetic pole position, igneous rocks studied should contain minerals that are:

1. Parameter with high Curie temperature

2. Parameter with low Curie temperature

3. ferromagnetic with high Curie temperature

4. ferromagnetic with low Curie temperature

Q:-24. Ratio of elemental abundance of the bulk Earth is sillier to that of

1. Basaltic Achondritic

2. Chondritic

3. Meteorites

4. Moon

Q:-25. The schistose texture of metamorphic rocks is best describe as

1. Roughly foliated, alternating parallel bands of light and dark coloured minerals

2. Well foliated, consisting dominantly of mica minerals large enough to be recognized

3. Foliated, but with fine-grained mineral

4. Non-foliated, interlocked minerals.

Q:-26. The space lattice structure of minerals is determined using

1. Chemical analysis

2. Spectroscopic method

3. X-ray diffraction

4. Scanning electron microscopy

Q:-27. All ocean floors are made up of rock no order than 200 million years, because

1. Ocean floors did not exist prior to this time

2. Older ocean floor is covered by lavas of younger ages

3. Older ocean floor is consumed by subduction

4. Older ocean floor is metamorphosed to Ophiolite

Q:-28. Which one of the following planets spine differently relative to the others?

1. Earth

2. Jupiter

3. Mars

4. Venus

Q:-29. A scientist measures the depth in Bangalore, Almora and Leh as and observes:

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q:-30. The following figure shows a transform fault across a mid-oceanic ride. The foci of the fault-associated earthquakes should be distributed in the region between

1. B and C only

2. A and B only

3. C and D only

4. A and D

Q:-31. During layer-parallel contraction, two stiff layer A and B of the same viscosity with thickness 2 and , produce buckle folds in a rock. The radio their initial wavelengths, will be:

1. 1

2.

3. 2

4.

Q:-32. The speed of the Gulf Stream is approximately

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q:-33. Average rainfall on a rainy day over the plains in India is about

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q:-34. If the density of the Earth’s atmosphere is kept constant with height at the surface value, what would be its thickness?

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q:-35. A viewer on the Earth sees a red Sun at sunset because

1. Sunlight traverses its shortest distance through the atmosphere

2. All of the red-wavelength light is scattered out the direct beam

3. Sunlight traverses its longest distance through the atmosphere at sunset

4. Sun is actually red in color

Q:-36. Which of the following properties of seawater is non-conservative?

1. Temperature

2. Salinity

3. Oxygen isotopic composition

4. Dissolved organic carbon

Q:-37. The lapses rate in the troposphere and the mesosphere are

1. Both negative

2. Positive and negative respectively

3. Negative and positive respectively

4. Both positive

Q:-38. Global warming is mainly due to the absorption of

2. UV radiation in the stratosphere

3. Terrestrial radiation by troposphere gases

Q:-39. During the solstices,

1. Noon rays of the Sun fall vertically over the equator

2. Noon rays of the Sun fall vertically only over the Tropic of Cancer.

3. Noon rays of the Sun fall vertically either over latitude.

4. Days are longer and nights are shorter in the northern hemisphere.

Q:-40. Cold eastern boundary current in the ocean desiccate the overlaying atmosphere and cause desert in the mid-latitude on adjoining continents. Which of the following currents is responsible for the Namib Desert?

1. Peruvian current

2. W. Australian current

3. Benguela current

4. Agulhaus current

Q:-41

The figure above represents the circulation of

1. A cyclone in the southern hemisphere

2. A cyclone in the northern hemisphere

3. An anticyclone in the southern hemisphere

4. An anticyclone in the northern hemisphere

Q:-42.

In the figure above, Q and R are water table in dry and wet seasons. Which of the three wells (A; B; C) is expected to have water throughout the year?

1. C only

2. B only

3. A only

4. A and B

Q:-43. Which one of the following agents of denudation operates over the widest geographical extend?

1. Glaciers

2. Winds

4. Rivers

5. Ground water

Q:-44. By what angle is the Earth’ rotational axis included relative to the eclipse (the orbital plane of the Earth)?

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q:-45. The confluence of three streams A,B,C of equal width is shown below. Water depth is the same everywhere. The water velocities (v) are also shown.

What is the value of x in ?

1. 3

2. 2

3. 6

4. -2

Q:-46. Sr is generally present as a trace element in calcite and gregoryite

However, its concentration is much higher in the former compared to the latter. This is because

1. Calcite is a low temperature mineral

2. The ionic size of is smaller than of Sr

3. Sr is highly mobile in the high temperature environment where gregoryite froms

4. The ionic size and charge of Sr are similar to those of Ca

Q:-47. Which one of the natural processes would likely remove a large amount of carbon from our atmosphere permanently?

1. Increase biological productivity

2. Lowering of the temperature of surface oceans

3. Large scale precipitation of carbonates

4. Enhanced physical weathering of rocks

Q:-48. What makes inner planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars) very different from the giant outer planets (Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune) of our solar system?

1. They possess nitrogen dominated atmospheres

2. They do not possess ring

3. They are predominantly made up of silicates and metals

4. All the water present in them is in liquid from

Q:-49. The disappearance of dinosaurs marks the end of which geologic Era?

1. Precambrian

2. Cambrian

3. Cenozoic

4. Mesozoic

Q:-50. Charcoal and graphite both have the same composition, Yet Charcoal burns, but graphite does not, since

1. Charcoal has a porous structure

2. Graphite has high lubrication property

3. Graphite has low packing density

4. Charcoal has a high calorific value

Q:-51. If X-ray diffractograms of and crystals are recorded, which of the following statement is correct?

And show similar‘d’ spacing value

Shows higher ‘d’ spacing than that of

shows a lower ‘d’ spacing values than

shows more number of X-ray peaks than

Q:-52. Which one of the following may not control the base level changes of rivers?

1. Sea level

2. Lowest point of the river valley

3. The surface of lakes

4. Lithology of river valley

Q:-53. Evaporating groundwater cause the formation of

1. Laterites

2. Alkali soils

3. Sink holes

4. Podsol

Q:-54. Mechanical weathering acts as a feedback process of increasing the rate of chemical weathering by

1. Increasing the surface area of the rock

2. Decreasing the surface area of the rock

3. Generating a huge pile of talus

4. Oxidizing the exposed surface

Q:-55. . The equilibrium of the above reaction will shift to the ring in

1. Polar region

2. Greater depth in ocean

3. Equatorial region

4. Higher altitude

Q:- 56. A delta may start getting eroded when

1. The rainfall in catchment increases

2. Uplift takes place in catchment region

3. Polar ice volume increase

4. Polar ice start melting

Q:-57. There is a larger number of coral reefs in the Arabian Sea than in the Bay of Bengal because the Arabian Sea has

1. Higher temperature

2. Higher nutrient supply

4. Higher salinity

Q:-58. Which of the following data was used to confirm Hess’s sea-floor spreading hypothesis?

1. Magnetic anomalies on the sea floor

2. Geometric fit of continents

3. Apparent polar wander paths

4. Different fossils on continents

Q:-59. All the names, western Siberia – Karroo – Parana – Deccan are related to

1. Glacial boulder beds

2. Continental flood basalts

3. Large diamond mines

4. Coal basin

Q:-60. In the western boundary of oceans, the Ekman current induced by surface winds transports water

1. along the wind

2. Opposite to the wind

3. towards the right of the wind

4. to the left of the wind

Q:-61. The much higher mean surface temperature of Venus than that of the earth is due to

1. Its proximity to Sun

2. Continuous bombardment of planetesimals

3. Very high in its atmosphere

4. Large convective mantle

Q:-62. The thermal infrared region of electromagnetic radiation has the wavelength range of

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q:-63. Which one of the following indicates river migration?

1. Meandering

2. Unmarried flood plain

3. Braiding

4. Rapid

Q:-64 A large number of beach ridge and swale complexes in the coastal region indicates

1. Marine transgression

2. Heavy sediment inflow from rivers

3. Frequent change in littoral current

4. Marine regression

Q:-65. Are the observed gravity fields in a valley, on a plane surface and on the top of a mounting on the same latitude, respectively, then?

1. Will be less then

2. Will be less then

3. Will be less then

4. Will be less then

Q:-66. For surface observation made in the high frequency rang, the electromagnetic behavior of a geological material is largely controlled by

1. Dielectric Constant

2. Magnetic permeability

3. Electrical resistivity

4. Porosity

Q:-67. In regions of plate convergence, the continental crust does not sub duct to a greater depth, because of its

1. Lower density

2. Higher density

3. Lower viscosity

4. Higher viscosity

Q:-68. Compared to the continental crust, the rocks of the upper mantel are

1. Richer in iron and have larger susceptibility value

2. Richer in iron, but have smaller susceptibility values

3. Poorer in iron and have smaller susceptibility values

4. Poorer I iron, but have higher susceptibility values

Q:-69. The Earth’s magnetic field at poles in twice that at the equator. If the Earth rotates twice faster than present, the ration would be

1. 2

2.

3. 4

4. 8

Q:-70. Compared to the normal crust, an isostatically undercompensated land mass has a

1. Thinner crust and undergoes upliftment

2. Thinner crust and undergoes subsidence

3. Thinker crust and undergoes upliftment

4.Thinker crust and undergoes subsidence

PART ‘C’

Q:-71. A body centered space group with a four-fold screw axis is abbreviated as:

1.

2.

3.

4.

B Statement I:

The X-ray powder diffraction pattern a body centered cubic crystal is found to have fewer diffraction lines than that of the primitive one.

Statement II:

1. Systematic extinction of diffraction peaks occur in body centered crystals.

2. Statement I and II are true and II explains I.

3. Statement I and II are false.

4. Statement I is false but II s true

5. Statement I and II are true, but II does explain I.

C. The unit cell parameter of a tetragonal crystal, namely, cell edges (a and c), number of formula units (z) and formula units(z) and formula are given. Its density can be calculated by:

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q:-72. A. The stereographic projection of the fold axis (F) and the axial planes (AP) in two regions, I and II, are shown below

The Folds in I and II are then:

1. I = upright, plunging fold and II = reclined fold.

2. I = inclined, plunging fold and II = horizontal fold.

3. I = recline fold and II = vertical fold.

4. I = vertical fold and II = horizontal fold.

B. Under a compressive tectonic stress, the faulting in rocks with coulomb friction occurs along the plane of maximum effective shear stress. If the angle of friction is ,the inclination of fault to the compression direction would be:

1.

2.

3.

4.

C. The figure shows two differently oriented deformable beds in a ductile shear zone undergoing simple share motion. What will happen to with progressive shearing?

1. Continuous stretching of

2. Shorting followed by extension of whereas continuous extension of

3. Continues shorting of both

4. Extension followed by shortening of and extension.

Q:-73.A A batch of magma on its passage to surface undergoes slow cooling, has low nucleation rate but high rate of crystal growth. Upon its eruption what would be the resultant texture?

1. Porphyritic

2. Hypidiomorphic

3. Aplitic

4. Glassy

B Arrange the minerals in the increasing order of entropy.

1. Microcline, Sanidine, Orthoclase

2. Orthoclase, Sanidine, Microcline

3. Sanidine, Microcline, Orthoclase

4. Microcline, Orthoclase, Sanidine

C. Latent heat fusion of a mineral is and on melting its entropy increases by What is the temperature of melting?

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q:-74. A A basalt contains by weight. What would be the value of ? (Hint: represent of the total iron)

1.

2.

4.

5.

B Chemical analysis of an igneous rock yielded the following results:

What is the name of the rock?

1. Kimberlite

2. Carbonatie

3. Anrthosite

4. Lamprophyre

C. A large-ion-lithophile-element (LILE) depleted mantel source is undergoing partial melting. The Chondritic-normalized rare-earth-element (REE) contents of two different magma batches (M1 and M2) are depict in the below. What percentage of melting would they likely represent?

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q:-75 A In natural system the lanthanides (Rare Earth Elements) occur in +3 oxidation state. Also occur respectively in:

1. +2 and +4

2. +4 and +2

3. +2 and +2

4. +5 and +4

B. An igneous rock mainly made up of cumulate plagioclase feldspars will have Chondritic normalized REE pattern with

1. Positive Ce anomaly

2. Negative Ce anomaly

3. Positive Eu anomaly

4. No Ce or Eu anomaly

C. nodules of hydrogenuse origin have distinct negative anomaly in shale normalized REE patterns. This is dule to

(1) Cannot be accommodating in minerals that are in nodules.

(2) The REE pattern of shale has strong positive Ce anomaly which results in negative Ce anomaly of shale normalized nodules.

(3) Being highly mobile, it is removed from the nodules to the surrounding abyssal sediments.

(4) Ce is depleted relative to other REE in the sea water and hence the nodules also develop negative anomaly.

Q:-76.A In the light of metamorphic facies concept state which one of the politic assemblages would be complete with the assemblage of epidotic-actinalite-chlorite for a mafic rock.

1. Lawsonite-muscovite-biotie

2. Kainite-muscovite-biotitie

3. Pyrophylite-muscovite-biotitic

4. Kyanite-granet-biotie-plagioclase

B. A rock contains the following minerals: muscovite, Feldspar , Sillimanite ,Quartz.Deduce the components and state if the phases have univariant or divariant reaction relationship.

1. ; divariant

2. ; univariant

3. ; univariant

4. ; divariant

C. if a rock of politic composition is subjected to eclogite facies of metamorphism what mineral assemblage would be developed?

(1) Stisthovite-Kyanite-Garnet

(2) Quartz-mulltie-Garnet

(3) Coesite-kyanite-Phlogopite

(4) Kyanite-Sillimanite-Pyrope

Q:-77. A submarine debris flow evolved into a turbidity current while moving along the continental slope. The corresponding fluid flow would then:

1. Change from turbulent to laminar

2. Change from laminar to turbulent

3. Remain unchanged

4. Oscillate between laminar and turbulent

B. Drilling struck oil in a buried coral reef system in the offshore Bombay Hight.Two facies namely, ‘Reef Crest’ and ‘Fore reef talus’ were identified. Choose the correct combination of facies-lithology-reservoir property from below:

1. Reef crest – Bound stone – High permeable

2. Fore reef talus – Grain stone – Low permeable

3. Reef crest – Grain stone - Low permeable

4. Fore reef talus – Bound stone – High permeable

C. The following figure depicts a meandering river system terminating as a delta with its sub-marine counterpart. Graphic sedimentary logs as point A, B and C are shown in the figure below.

Identify the correct depositional succession from the following combinations:

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q:-78. Planktonic foraminiferal assemblages in sediment cores are used in paleoceanographic and paleoclimatic reconstructions. Changes in diversity, abundance, coiling pattern, and morphology and preservation condition of various species are important parameters considered for interpreting the assemblage recorded.

A Identify the wrong statement

1. Species diversity decreases from warm to cold water mass conditions

2. Sinistrally coiled shell in predominate in cold water mass conditions

3. Nature of planktonic foraminiferal assemblage is primarily related to the bottom water mass conditions.

4. Planktonic foraminifera are poorly preserved in sediments below the carbonate lysocline.

B Choose the correct statement.

1. Different species of planktonic foraminifera tend to live at different depths in the water column.

2. They are more susceptible to the dissolution as compared to the pteropods.

3. They are abundant in self-area then the deep ocean sediments.

4. Their shells are aragonite in composition.

C. Deep sea records of low latitude regions during certain time intervals in the Quaternary contain abundant cold temperature species and sinisterly coiled indicating:

1. Interglacial cycles

2. Glacial cycles

3. Intensification of tropical upwelling

4. Intensification of Antarctic Bottom water formation.

Q:-79. Photosynthesis and silicate weathering consume, which can be shown by the following reactions.

A. The reason for the alkaline of surface water is

1. Silicate weathering produces

2. High organic matter production

3. High total dissolved salts in water

4. High suspended particulate matter in waters

B Reaction No. 1 sequester provided the organic matter produced is

1. Buried with the sediments

2. Decomposed in the soil

3. Recycled back to the forest ecosystem

4. Converted to food grains through agriculture

C Reaction no.2 of silicate weathering is not responsible for

1. Climate change in geological time scales

2. Decadal to century scale climatic changes

3. Nutrient supply to the plants

4. Acid rain buffering

Q:-80. A Which of the following is true for a rejuvenated topography?

1. Broad valley with huge flood plain

2. Meandering river with Oxbow lake and cut-off meanders

3. Incised river with entrenched meanders

4. Excessive braiding

B In a vast Pediplain country there are scanty mounds having lithological similarity with the surrounding rocks. This condition of a terrain indicates which of the following?

1. Palin country with number of intrusive plugs

2. Very young topography

3. Matured topography

4. Yet to attain maturity

C. A convex coast having bundles of beach ridges, swales, back water, indicates one of the following character of the coast

1. Erosion

2. Subsidence

3. Emergence

4. Dormancy

Q:-81. A On the day of vernal equinox, the shadow cast by a tower high was long, pointing towards North. The latitude of the region is

1.

2.

3.

4.

B Which of the following could be one of the hottest days in the year at New Zealand?

1. 25 December

2. 22 July

3. 1 December

4. 21 March

C. When the local time is noon on a ship, the Greenwich mean time is . The longitude of its location is

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q:-81. What is the ground coverage of pixel dimension agricultural land in the image?

1.

2.

3.

4.

B. A highly undulatory terrain of different types of vegetation is imaged with an illumination from west. Which specific digital image processing technique will provide a better interpretation of all vegetation types broadly?

1. Density slicing

2. Linear stretching

3. Ratioing

4. Filtering

C. Assume that the relief displacement for a tower ‘A’ is and the radial distance from the center of the photo to the top of the tower is . If the flying height is above the base of the base of the tower, find the height of the tower.

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q:-83.

Figure shows the reconstruction global air temperature anomalies during

To

A Such high resolution reconstruction are usually based on

1. Corals

2. Lake Sediments

3. Ocean sediments

4. Tree ring

B Identity the little Ice Age in the figure

1. A to B

2. B to C

3. C to D

4. A to C

C In the above figure where is the rate of change of temperature the largest?

1. Between A and X

2. Between X and B

3. Between Y and C

4. Between Z and D

Q:-84. A Warm Ocean current helps maintaining grasslands in the adjoining continents. Choose the correct matches from among the following grassland with the corresponding ocean currents:

 Pampas Agulhas current Veld East Australian current Downs South Atlantic current Stepper Gulf stream

1.

2.

3.

4.

B. Cold Ocean current cause desert in the adjoining contains. Choose the correct matches from among the following deserts with the corresponding ocean currents:

 Sahara Canaries current Mohave/Mojove W.Austalian current Australian Desert California current Atacama Benguela current

1.

2. 1

3.

4.

C. Desert are mostly confined to to of latitudes on either side of the equator because

(2) Atmospheric motion in the region is convergent at the ground level

(3) Soils in these regions have poor fertility

(4) Atmospheric motion is mostly sinking type of motion in these regions.

Q:-85.A Transverse dunes from in a region where

1. Sand is abundant and vegetation is scarce

2. Sand supply is limited and winds are unidirectional

3. Sand supply is moderate and winds are unidirectional

4. Sand supply is limited and vegetation is dense

B. Sedimentary structure formed in coarse sand in response to increasing stream velocity follow one of the following orders

1. Lower plane bend dunesupper plane bendAntidune

2. Rippledune upper plane bendAntidune

3. Waverippleduneantidune

4. Ripple lower plane benddunesantidune

C. Limestone are generally formed in shallow shelf region along coastline that has

1. Warm water, rich nutrient supply and less detrital input

2. Warm water, rich in nutrients and abundant detrital input

3. Cold water, rich in nutrients and abundant detrital input

4. Cold water, rich in nutrient and less detrital input

Q:-86. A Identity the correct statement:

1. Artesian well are permanent source of fresh water

2. Artesian well water lack in dissolved minerals

3. Artesian wells are usually more than 300 m deep

4. Artesian wells are formed in regions where a permeable layer (e.g. sandstone) is sandwiched between two impermeable layer (e.g clay)

B Which one of the following regions has a high potential for artesian wells?

1. Western Ghats

2. Kaveri Delta

3. Deccan traps

4. Himalava

C. Which of the following has the greatest negative influence on ground water recharge?

1. Urbanization

2. Population pressure

3. Climatic change

4. Deforestation

Q:-87. The following figure shows an E-W cross-section of a topography with a sudden rise in elevation by at a location B, and which is otherwise even everywhere.

Gravity observations were made at widely separated stations A, B, C and D and also At E in a borehole at a depth of below D. The topographic material has an average density such that gravitational constant.

A. Compared to A, the gravimeter reading at B is

1. Same as that of A

2. Smaller by

3. Smaller by

4. Larger by

B Compared to B, the gravimeter reading at C is smaller bt

1.

2.

3.

4.

C. Compared to D, the gravimeter reading at E is

1. Smaller

2. Smaller

3. Smaller

4. larger

Q:-88.A the rate of decrease of the magnetic field with elevation on Earth’s surface is

1. Everywhere the same

2. Maximum at the latitude

3. Twice at the equator compared to the poles

4. Twice at the poles compared to the equator

B. magnetic anomalies in the vertical and horizontal components at the station close to the magnetic latitude are found to be 150 and -173 gammas respectively. Then the anomaly in the total field would be around

1.

2.

3.

4.

C. A two-dimensional body of susceptibility striking at the magnetic latitude is magnetized by induction in the Earth’s magnetic field. The effective intensity and inclination of the induced magnetism are respectively

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q:-89. If is a sequence of number generated by assigning progressively increasing values for the variable in a polynomial, then

1. 17

2. 25

3. 33

4.41

B. Given that the approximate solution lies at the solution of the following set of equations

And

1.

2.

3.

4.

C. are the partial energies of a digitized signal.

Statement I: There are as many as 32 signals that can generate these partial energies

Statement II: The auto correlate signals of each of the possible signal are identical.

1. Statements I and II are true

2. Statements I is true; II is false

3. Statements I is false; II is true

4. Statements I and II are false

Q:-90. A seismic wave emanating from a shot point, when incident at angle at a point on a refractor, gets refracted at an angle . If the wave is incident away from p, it would be critically refracted.

A. The critical angle is

1.

2.

3.

4.

B. The depth to the refractor is about

1.

2.

3.

4.

C. The cross-over distance along a refraction profile across this refractor would be around

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q:-91. A Ideally it is not possible to derive the travel time of P wave from the corresponding knowledge for S wave despite knowing the value of in the medium of propagation. This is due to difference in their

1. Attenuation property

2. Particle motion

3. Ray parameter

4. Wave propagation characteristics.

B Consider a thick crust of overlying the mantle with velocity If an earthquake occurs near surface, at which epicenter distance the will be first recorded on seismogram?

1.

2.

3.

4.

C Consider a viscous body of viscosity excite by a harmonic stress the elastic response of the system would be

Q:-92. MT sounding were carried over a terrain. Each sounding was carried out for 100,000 second and at each second 20 stack were measured using 10 bit convertor. The acquired data was sample at 2 second interval and all the 3-component of the magnetic field and 2 component of electric field were recovered. The data brings out that (i) phase data shows consistent splitting and (ii) induction vectored are negligible.

A. How many days would have been required for each observation?

(1)

(2)

B. The total memory requirement will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

C . The area is

(1) 1D isotropic

(2) 1D anisotropic

(3) 2D isotropic

(4) 2D anisotropic

Q:-93.The values of a repose function at frequencies are respctively.

A. The phase lag due to indicative coupling and conductor property, respectively, for the observation at are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

B. The ratio of the real and imaginary components of the response function at is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

C. Which of the following is true?

(1) Corresponds to a poor conductor, while corresponds to a moderate conductor

(2) Corresponds to a good conductor, while corresponds to a moderate conductor

(3) Corresponds to a moderate conductor, while corresponds to a good conductor

(4) Corresponds to a moderate conductor, while corresponds to a poor conductor

Q:-94.A You are to economically conduct a magnetic survey for an ore body expected to be wide and thick, occurring at a depth of and running for about 2 Km. The optimum traverse and station spacing would be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

B. Pick out from the following the most appropriate geophysical strategy to located diamond bearing volcanic pipes in an area where other igneous intrusive are possible

(1) Reconnaissance gravity and magnetic surveys to located areas of hight anomalies, to be followed by seismic fan shooting for the outlines of the pipes.

(2) Gravity survey to located gravity highs, followed by magnetic and resistivity surveys to identify regions of magnetic closures and resistivity high.

(3) Reconnaissance magnetic survey to identity magnetic closure, to be followed by detailed gravity and resistivity survey to identify region of gravity and resistivity lows.

(4) Reconnaissance magnetic survey to identify magnetic closure to be followed by gravity and resistivity survey to identify regions of gravity and resistivity lows.

C. Ground water occur in isolated gravel pocked present in a thick clay formation overlain by a moderately thick layer of alluvium. Which of the following can be an appropriate geophysical strategy in location spots for drilling wells?

(1) Systematic electrical sounding followed by GPR sounding

(2) Parallel electrical profiles followed by seismic refraction surveys

(3) Parallel electrical profiles followed by electrical sounding

(4) Electrical sounding at selection place followed by systematic electrical profiling

Q:-95 A Turbulence experience by aircraft at higher levels is due to the breaking of

(1) Rossby Waves

(2) Kelvin Waves

(3) Soud Waves

(4) Gravity Waves

B. The fog occurring over the Indian region is of the type

(3) Frontal

(4) Valley

C .Visibility is reduced in the fog due to the existence of

(1) Large-size cloud drops in large numbers

(2) Small-size cloud drops In large numbers

(3) Large-size cloud drops in small numbers

(4) Small-size cloud drops in small numbers

Q:-96. A. Convective Available potential Energy(CAPE) of the atmosphere depends on

(1) Potential energy of the atmosphere

(2) Kinetic energy of the atmosphere

(3) Buoyancy of the atmospheric parcel lifted from the surface to level of tree convection

B. convection Inhibition Energy (CINE) of the atmosphere is the energy required

(1) To heat the surface water up to the threshold temperature for convection to occur

(2) To raise the atmospheric parcel from surface to the level of free convection

(3) To increase the kinetic energy of the atmospheric parcel to twice its original value

(4) To cool the boundary layer air to stability to stabilization

C .Atmosphere response to convective heating at the equator is

(1) Kelvin wave moving eastward and Rossby wave moving westward

(2) Kelvin wave moving westward and Rossby wave moving eastward

(3) Gravity wave moving downward

(4) Mixed Rossby gravity wave moving upward

Q:-97. A. Rader reflectivity is measured in units of dBZ, which is

(2) Transmitted power by the transmitter of the radar in kilowatts

(3) Radio of the received to transmitted power in the log scale

(4) Coefficient of reflection of transmitted power

B. melting band in the radar picture indicates the presence of

(1) Cumulonimbus clod

(2) Cirrus cloud

(3) Strati form cloud

(4) Noctilucent cloud

C. Convection cloud can be identified on a radar screen by observing the reflectivity which shows

(1) High reflective at lower levels

(2) Slow decrease of reflectivity above the melting level

(3) Rapid decrease of reflectivity above the melting level

(4) Constant reflectivity throughout the height of the cloud

Q:-98. A. Cyclostrophic flow in the nor them hemisphere

(1) Can be either a cyclonic or anti-cyclonic flow

(2) Has to be a cyclonic flow only

(3) Has to be anti-cyclonic flow only

(4) Is neither a cyclonic nor an anti-cyclonic flow

B. The theorem which provides the most general relationship between circulation and vorticity is the

(1) Gauss divergence theorem

(2) Bjerknes circulation thermos

(3) Stone theorem

(4) Kelvin circulation theorem

C. The expression for Coriolis force has both as well as terms, where the angular velocity of Earth’s rotation is, and is the latitude. While the term is not given much importance, the term is calls the Coriolis parameter and is denoted by The reason for the importance given to is because

(1) has a physical meaning and is nothing but the planetary vorticity

(2) is related to the horizontal component of the angular velocity of the rotation of the Earth

(3) has opposite signs in the two hemispheres

(4) has higher magnitude over middle and higher latitudes

Q:-100. The temperature attained when moist air is saturated by isobaric cooling is called

A.

(1) Virtual temperature

(2) Equivalent temprature

(3) Wet bulb temperature

(4) Dew point temperature

B. Instability of air parcel is reduced by

(2) Latent heat of condensation

(3) Entrainment

(4) Vertical upward displacement

C.Criteria for potential instability in a moist layer where the dew point temperature rapidly decreases with height is (taking and respectively as potential temperature, equivalent potential temprature, and height)

(1) is negative

(2) is positive

(3) is negative

(4) is positive

Q:-101. A. Fair weather electric field is maintained in the atmosphere primarily due to the following reason.

(1) Existence of ionosphere

(2) Existence of Earth’s magnetic field

(3) Existence of precipitation currents which bring positive charges to the ground

(4) Presence of thunderstorms

B. The distribution of electric charges in a thunderstorm is as follows:

(1) Main positive charge Centre at base of the cloud and a main negative charge center at the top of the cloud

(2) Main positive charge center at the center of the cloud and a main negative charge center at the base of the cloud

(3) Main positive charge center at the top of the cloud and a main negative charge center at the base of the cloud.

(4) Main negative charge center at the center of the cloud and a main positive charge center at the base of the cloud.

C. The first stage of development of a lightning discharge from cloud-to-ground is the manifestation of a ‘stepped leader’. The ‘stepped leader’ is an

(1) Invisible shaft of negatively charged ions

(2) Invisible shaft of positively charged ions

(3) Visible shaft of negatively charged icon

()Visible shaft of positively charged icons

Q:-102. A. homogenous nucleation os water in vapour at temperature above are extremely rare in the real atmosphere since

(1) Lower availability of wet table aerosols in real atmosphere

(2) Temperature encountered in the atmosphere are not conducive for homogeneous nucleation to operate

(3) The observation supersaturation in the real atmosphere hardly exceeds 1%

(4) Lower availability of hygroscopic aerosols in the real atmosphere

B. The Bergeron-Findeisen process is one in which

(1) The warm cloud liquid droplets grows to raindrop size

(2) The ice crystals grow at the expense of supercoiled liquid droplets

(3) The super cooled liquid droplets grows to raindrop size

(4) The super cooled liquid drops grow at the expense of ice crystals

C. The cumulus cloud in a marine environment is more likely to precipitate then a cumulus cloud over the continental region. The reason for this is

(1) The marine cumulus cloud has higher verticals motion

(2) The marine cumulus cloud has larger liquid water content

(3) The number of cloud droplet in marine cumulus cumulus cloud is more than that in a continental cumulus cloud

(4) The cloud droplet size in the marine cumulus is larger than that of a continental cumulus cloud

Q:-103.A A southerly wind of is blowing over an ocean of density If the value of the drag coefficient is then the magnitude of the wind stress will be (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

B. With reference to A above, if there is a coastline of to the lest of the wind at the magnitude of Ekman transport will be (Sv = Sverdrup)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

C. With reference to A and B above, if the wind speed become zero at a distance 100 km away from the coast, the wind stress curl would be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Q:-104. The are a number of marginal seas, whose evolution has influence ocean circulation and climate on a global scale. Of these, the Mediterranean Sea is important, which is connected today with the Atlantic Ocean through the strait of Gibraltar

The Mediterranean Sea Was isolated from the Atlantic Ocean following the sea level fall for a short period during the

A.

(1) Early

(2) Late Miocene

(3) Late

(4) Early Miocene

B. The isolated Mediterranean sea developed high salinities and voluminous amounts of evaporates and this event is popularity knows as

(1) Messinian salinity Anomaly Event

(2) Messinian Salinity Crisis Event

(3) Mediterranean Seaway Closure Event

(4) Mediterranean Evaporite Event

C. The amount of high salinity, warm Mediterranean outflow water entering the Atlantic Ocean has a major influence on the global climate because it will

(1) Affect the themohaline circulation of North Atlantic

(2) Release dissolved into the Atlantic

(3) Warm the Atlantic Ocean surface water

(4) Affect the Interropical convergence Zone(ITCZ)

Q:-105.A Iron is a trace element and present as Fe(II) & Fe(III) in seawater. In their vertical profiles at the oxygen minimum layer

(1) Fe(II)will have maxima

(2) Fe(II)will have minima

(3) Fe(III)will have maxima

(4) Both Fe(II)& Fe(III)will have maxima