Earth Sciences Model Question Paper

Download PDF of This Page (Size: 452K)

Part B

Q-1 Albedo of a surface is defined by the ratio of outgoing to incoming solar radiation. Keeping this in view, which of the following surface will have the highest albedo?

(a) Water

(b) Sand

(c) Snow

(d) Forest

View Answer with Explanation

Q-2. Geotropic wind is a balance between the pressure gradient force and the Carioles force. In non-geotropic wind, flow will become circulatory because of

(a) Pressure difference term

(b) Momentum term

(c) Temperature difference term

(d) Shear term

View Answer with Explanation

Q-3. In valley-mountain system, cold air is heavier than warm air, and thus flows down hill as a katabolic wind. In the case of an anabatic wind,

(a) Wind rises vertically in the valley

(b) Wind forms updraft and downdraft motion

(c) Wind will flow along the slope

(d) Wind will have cross mountain flow

View Answer with Explanation

Q-4. Cyclones or hurricanes do not develop within about Equation and S of the equator because the

(a) Pressure gradient is weak

(b) Trade winds converge

(c) Ocean surface temperature is high

(d) Carioles force is very weak

View Answer with Explanation

Q-5. When statically stable air flown over a hill or ridge, it is set into oscillation. These waves are known as

(a) Ross by waves

(b) Kelvin waves

(c) Gravity waves

(d) Mountain waves

View Answer with Explanation

Q-6. A ceaseless movement of wind and ocean currents results in global circulation because of

(a) Unequal distribution of oceanic and continental mass

(b) Radioactive forcing due to Sun-Earth interaction

(c) Tilt of Earth's axis

(d) Revolution / rotation of Earth

View Answer with Explanation

Q-7. The organism that can take Equation directly from sea water is

(a) Foraminifera

(b) Cocolithophore

(c) Cyan bacteria

(d) Din flagellates

View Answer with Explanation

Q-8. Which is the major limiting element in marine primary production?

(a) Sodium

(b) Nitrogen

(c) Carbon

(d) Argon

View Answer with Explanation

Q-9. If the sea surface temperature is increased in Antarctic Ocean due to global warming, the dissolved oxygen in its deep water will

(a) Increase

(b) Initially increase and then decrease

(c) Decrease

(d) Not change

View Answer with Explanation

Q-10. Hydrogenous sediment in the oceans is

(a) Derived from skeletal debris

(b) Precipitated by chemical or biochemical reactions

(c) Produced by weathering of rocks on land

(d) Ejected by volcanoes

View Answer with Explanation

Q-11. Sea surface temperature (SST) is an important and variable parameter of oceans. In the Indian Ocean, SST variability has the largest amplitude on the timescale of

(a) Century

(b) Decadal

(c) Interannual

(d) Seasonal

View Answer with Explanation

Q-12. The speed of current in the wind-driven Ekman layer

(a) Increases with depth

(b) Decreases with depth

(c) Remains constant

(d) First decreases and then increases

View Answer with Explanation

Q-13. Which one of the following is not true in case of the Arabian Sea?

(a) Seasonal high biological productivity

(b) Mid-depth oxygen minimum zone

(c) Net annual evaporation

(d) Net annual precipitation

View Answer with Explanation

Q-14. Silicon limitation in the upper ocean will hamper the growth of

(a) Cocolithophos

(b) Foraminifera

(c) Diatom

(d) Corals

View Answer with Explanation

Q-15. Which one of the following rock suites represents the oceanic lithosphere?

(a) Turbidities

(b) Ophiolite

(c) Seismite

(d) Granulites

View Answer with Explanation

Q-16. Which one of the following is defined by shear strain?

(a) Change in length

(b) Change in angle

(c) Change in volume

(d) Change in area

View Answer with Explanation

Q-17. Which one of the following is a measure of compressibility of a material?

(a) Elasticity (E) Young's modulus

(b) Rigidity (G) shear modulus

(c) Poisson's ratio Equation

(d) Viscosity Equation

View Answer with Explanation

Q-18. Four oxygen ions of radius Equation (incompressible and touching spheres) are located at the corners of a square. What will be the radius ratio Equation of the cation (radius Equation ) lodged at the centre of the square?

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

Q-19. A light beam is incident on a mirror at an angle Equation with the normal to the mirror. If the mirror is rotated in the direction of incident beam by an angle r, what will be the rotation angle of the reflected beam with respect to its previous position?

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

Q-20. Coe site, a high pressure polymorph of quartz is found in rocks exposed on Earth's surface because, cosine

(a) Is stable at low temperature

(b) Is a high density mineral

(c) Is not kinetically favored for decomposition

(d) Has the lowest free energy at the Earth's surface

View Answer with Explanation

Q-21. In Equation , the Equation content (in wt %) is close to

(a) 80

(b) 60

(c) 40

(d) 20

View Answer with Explanation

Q-22. In the feldspar mineral structure, chemical substitution such as Equation are common. Amongst the feldspar group of minerals, which one should have the highest amount of Al?

(a) Albeit

(b) Anorthite

(c) Orthoclase

(d) Oligoclase

View Answer with Explanation

Q-23. Generation of nuclear energy requires availability of minerals containing U and Th. Which one of the following rocks is known to have high concentrations of nuclear minerals?

(a) Basalt

(b) Diorite

(c) Granodiorite

(d) Pegmatite

View Answer with Explanation

Q-24. Which one of the following minerals will have no useful nutrient elements for plant life?

(a) Plagioclase feldspar

(b) Quartz

(c) Olivine

(d) Biotitic

View Answer with Explanation

Q-25. The atmosphere of Venus has about 97% Equation . If so, the planet should have

(a) An abundance of photosynthesizing bacteria

(b) An abundance of water

(c) No life at all as the surface should be very hot

(d) An abundance of fossil fuel deposits

View Answer with Explanation

Q-26. Which one of the following drainage patterns is typically associated with fold mountain belts?

(a) Parallel

(b) Rectangular

(c) Trellis

(d) Dendritic

View Answer with Explanation

Q-27. If the wave front is exactly parallel to the coast, which one of the following will still occur along the coast?

(a) Beach drift

(b) Longshore drift

(c) Longshore current

(d) Wave refraction

View Answer with Explanation

Q-28. A river will braid irrespective of the fact that it is gravel-bed, sand-bed or silt-bed if

(a) Sediment supply = sediment transport

(b) Sediment supply < sediment transport

(c) Sediment supply > sediment transport

(d) Sediment supply >> sediment transport

View Answer with Explanation

Q-29. If Equation are the Earth’s normal gravity values at four locations Equation

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

Q-30. If R is the ratio of the Earth’s gravity field to its magnetic field at the equator, the ratio of these fields at the poles would be approximately

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

Q-31. On the geoidal surface, the Earth’s gravity field

(a) Is everywhere zero

(b) Is a constant and is normal to the surface

(c) Varies along the surface, but is normal to it

(d) Varies in magnitude and direction along the surface

View Answer with Explanation

Q-32. An isostatically compensated elevated landmass is characterized by

(a) Strong negative Bouguer and free-air anomalies

(b) Strong negative Bouguer and little or no free-air anomalies

(c) Strong positive Bouguer and little or no free-air anomalies

(d) Strong positive Bouguer and free-air anomalies

View Answer with Explanation

Q-33. The remnant magnetism in a rock solidified in the Earth’s magnetic field at a latitude of Equation dips

(a) At Equation

(b) Between Equation

(c) Between Equation

(d) At an angle greater than Equation

View Answer with Explanation

Q-34. The shadow zone is the region bounded by the disappearance of P and S waves, and the onset of P waves

(a) Reflected at the Earth’s surface

(b) Refracted through the fluid core

(c) Reflected at the mantle-core boundary

(d) Refracted through the fluid and solid cores

View Answer with Explanation

Q-35. Statement I: Ferromagnetic minerals exhibit properties of paramagnetic minerals beyond Curie temperatures.

Statement II: Mantle rocks are less magnetic than those of the upper crust.

(a) Statements I and II are true; I explain II

(b) Statements I and II are true, but I do not explain II

(c) Statement I is true, but II is false

(d) Statement I is false, but II is true

View Answer with Explanation

Q-36. An example of interpolate volcanic activity is

(a) The Himalaya

(b) Island arcs

(c) The Alps

(d) The Hawaiian Islands

View Answer with Explanation

Q-37. A region with nearly flat topography and large negative gravity anomaly suggests

(a) A root in the mantle

(b) Thin crust with low density material under plating

(c) Thick crust with high density material under plating

(d) Thin crust

View Answer with Explanation

Q-38. Heat is transported in the lithosphere through

(a) Advection

(b) Radiation

(c) Conduction

(d) Convection

View Answer with Explanation

Q-39. If a material of length Equation changes to Equation after homogeneous deformation, then the stretch is

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

Q-40. The third most abundant gas in the Earth’s atmosphere next to Equation is

(a) Water vapor

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

Q-41. Somali jet during Indian summer monsoon season

(a) Strengthens

(b) Weakens

(c) Remains the same

(d) Reverses

View Answer with Explanation

Q-42. In the troposphere, the temperature decreases as a function of height because

(a) Air is incompressible and its pressure decreases with height

(b) Air is compressible and its pressure increases with height

(c) Air is compressible and its pressure decreases with height

(d) Air is incompressible and its pressure increases with height

View Answer with Explanation

Q-43. Which one of the following results in a decrease in the kinetic energy of a stream?

(a) Bed erosion

(b) Bed deposition

(c) Bank erosion

(d) Bank deposition (overbank)

View Answer with Explanation

Q-44. Which one of the following statements is false?

(a) The organisms with hard parts (skeletons) appeared in early Cambrian

(b) Devonian is known as the "age of fishes"

(c) Graptolites appeared and become extinct during Paleozoic

(d) Permian/Triassic boundary mass extinction event was far less devastating than the K-T boundary mass extinction event

View Answer with Explanation

Q-45. Which rock type would constitute best aquifer?

(a) Sandstone

(b) Conglomerate

(c) Limestone

(d) Basalt

View Answer with Explanation

Q-46. Which one of the following does not contribute to the mass wasting process in a mountainous region?

(a) Steep slope

(b) Thick vegetation

(c) Presence of water

(d) High relief

View Answer with Explanation

Q-47. The distribution of plants and animals is largely controlled by climate and geographic barriers, which are largely controlled by

(a) Atmospheric processes

(b) Oceanic processes

(c) Tectonic processes

(d) soil forming processes

View Answer with Explanation

Q-48. Most clay minerals have negative charge on their surfaces. This has an important role for

(a) Metal nutrients supply to the plants

(b) Phosphate supply to the plants

(c) Weather ability of clay minerals

(d) Supply of Equation ions to the plants

View Answer with Explanation

Q-49. In a satellite image, the intensity of reflected radiation recorded at 1.35 to Equation wave length is the least because of absorption of

(a) Insulation by atmospheric Equation

(b) Radiation by water bodies at Earth’s surface

(c) Radiation by polluted water at Earth’s surface

(d) Isolation by atmospheric oxygen and ozone

View Answer with Explanation

Q-50. Which one of the following wavelengths of visible spectrum penetrates deepest in the oceanic euphoric layer?

(a) Red light

(b) Blue light

(c) Yellow light

(d) UV light

View Answer with Explanation

PART C

Q-1. (A) Mass extinctions are geologically sudden events that result in the loss of biodiversity and subsequently the evolution of new lineages and global biogeochemical changes. The KTB (Cretaceous/Tertiary boundary) evens record:

(a) Only the demise of dinosaurs

(b) Expansion of polar ice-sheets

(c) Decrease in mean global annual temperature

(d) The loss of massive calcite shelled invertebrates

View Answer with Explanation

(B) Which one of the following section represents the most complete K-T boundary transitions in India with all critical global K-T boundary markers?

(a) Bagh Beds of Central India

(b) Um Sohryngkew river section of Meghalaya

(c) Subathu formation of Himalaya

(d) Umbria marine bed in Central India

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Column A has certain terms that are related to those in column B

Out of the following which one provides the correct set of matched terms from

Column A and B

(a) (A-1,B-3);(A-2,B-4);(A-3,B-6);(A-4,B-2);(A-5,B-5);(A-6,B-1)

(b) (A-1,B-3);(A-2,B-5);(A-3,B-2);(A-4,B-4);(A-5,B-1);(A-6,B-6)

(c) (A-1,B-3);(A-2,B-4);(A-3,B-6);(A-4,B-2);(A-5,B-5);(A-6,B-1)

(d) (A-1,B-3);(A-2,B-5);(A-3,B-6);(A-4,B-1);(A-5,B-2);(A-6,B-4)

View Answer with Explanation

Q-2.

The above figure shown evolution of 4 samples A, B, C and D with time.

Evolution of 4 Samples a, B, C, D

The above figure shown evolution of 4 samples A, B, C and D with time.

Equation , which results in the increase of Equation with time with respect to Stable Equation . The above figure shown Equation evolution of 4 samples A, B, C and D with time.

(A) If A, B, Candy D represents various rock forming minerals, D is most likely to be

(a) Olivine

(b) Plagioclase

(c) Orthoclase

(d) Muscovite

View Answer with Explanation

(B) If A, B, C and D represent different earth reservoirs D, is most likely to be the

(a) Crust

(b) Mantle

(c) Continental crust

(d) Oceanic crust

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Which of the following statements is true?

(a) Sample D has the lowest abundance of Rb.

(b) Sample D has the highest Equation .

(c) Sample A has the highest Equation .

(d) Sr abundances of D>C>B>A

View Answer with Explanation

Q-3. The figure below shows equilibrium crystallization behaviour of a liquid 'P' that cools from initial temperature Equation , at one atmosphere.

The figure below shows equilibrium crystallization behaviour of a liquid 'P' that cools from initial temperature

Crystallization Behaviour of a Liquid

The figure below shows equilibrium crystallization behaviour of a liquid 'P' that cools from initial temperature

(A) At temperature Equation , when the liquid reaches the composition Equation , which of the following statements is true?

(a) Only Y crystallizes.

(b) The system becomes isobaric invariant.

(c) The system becomes isobaric Unitarian.

(d) The system becomes isobaric bivariant

View Answer with Explanation

(B) If the phase diagram represents equilibrium melting at one atmosphere, then the melt generated at Equation by a solid of composition 'Z' will have a composition of

(a) Z

(b) P

(c) Equation

(d) X

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Assuming that the heat is removed at uniform rate, a temperature-time arrived for equilibrium crystallization of the liquid composition 'P' can be depicted as

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

View Answer with Explanation

Q-4.

The above diagram shows various depocentres for oceanic sediments, marked with alphabets (a), (b)....

Depocentres for Oceanic Sediments

The above diagram shows various depocentres for oceanic sediments, marked with alphabets (a), (b)....

The above diagram shows various depocentres for oceanic sediments, marked

with alphabets (a), (b)..... etc. Answer the following.

(A) Plank tic/benthic foraminifera ratio in oceanic sediments deposited on the floor

(a) Increases in the direction from P to Q

(b) Remains same from P to Q

(c) Decreases from P to Q

(d) Initially decreases till R and then increases up to Q

View Answer with Explanation

(B) What type of sediments do you expect at (a)?

(a) Pteropod ooze

(b) Pteropod ooze

(c) Nanno-foram ooze

(d) Siliceous ooze

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) At (c) there will be only radiolarian ooze

(b) At (c) there will be a mixture of pteropod ooze, foraminifera ooze and radiolarian ooze

(c) At (b) there will be a mixture of pteropod ooze, foraminifera ooze and radiolarian ooze

(d) At (a) there will be only foraminifera ooze

View Answer with Explanation

Q-5. Collision zones are associated with high-P (<10 kbar) to ultra-high (>10 kbar) pressure metamorphism of the sub ducted crust. A major debate is if the modern day plate tectonics operated in the early Arching vis-a-vis discovering ultra-high P metamorphism in the Achaean terrains.

(A) In any mineralogical transformation, the stable assemblage is the one with

(a) The highest enthalpy

(b) The lowest entropy

(c) The highest free energy

(d) The lowest free energy

View Answer with Explanation

(B) The preservation of ultra-high pressure minerals depends on

(a) The local thermodynamic conditions

(b) The ability of the minerals to equilibrate during exhumation

(c) The availability of water during exhumation

(d) The pressure of equilibrium

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Polymorphic transformations during cooling-exhumation occur at temprature lower than the thermodynamic P-T conditions because of

(a) The lack of energy to drive the reaction due to higher thermal throughput

(b) The surplus of energy gained due to cooling

(c) Lower partial pressure of the ambient fluid

(d) Ease of reaction progress

View Answer with Explanation

Q-6. The total free energy change Equation of a growing hypothetical spherical (radius=r) phase, say in a melt is expressed as

Equation

Equation is the free energy change per unit volume of the phase, and Equation is the

tensional force normal to surface of the phase

(A) Since the growth of the phase (increases of r) is promoted by minimization of free energy Equation the critical radius Equation of the phase should be

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

(B) At the critical radius, the Equation can be expressed in terms of Equation and Equation as

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Based on equation (1) and the results of (A) and (B), identify which one of the following graphs is correct ( Equation is always positive).

Graph A total and r

Graph a Total and R

Graph A total and r

(a)

First Based on equation (1) and the results of (A) and (B), identify which one of the following graphs

First Based on Equation (1) and the Results

First Based on equation (1) and the results of (A) and (B), identify which one of the following graphs

(b)

Second Based on equation (1) and the results of (A) and (B), identify which one of the following graphs

Second Based on Equation and the Results

Second Based on equation (1) and the results of (A) and (B), identify which one of the following graphs

(c)

Thired Based on equation (1) and the results of (A) and (B), identify which one of the following graphs

Thired Based on Equationand the Results

Thired Based on equation (1) and the results of (A) and (B), identify which one of the following graphs

(d)

Four Based on equation (1) and the results of (A) and (B), identify which one of the following graphs

Four Based on Equation and the Results

Four Based on equation (1) and the results of (A) and (B), identify which one of the following graphs

View Answer with Explanation

Q-7. (A) The essential difference in the formation of gabbo-hosted Ni-sulphide deposits (Ni) and porphyry copper deposits (Cu) is

(a) Ni: magmatic segregation Cu: sedimentary exhalation

(b) Ni: liquid immiscibility Cu: sedimentary exhalation

(c) Ni: liquid immiscibility Cu: magmatic hydrothermal

(d) Ni: magmatic segregation Cu: sedimentary exhalation

View Answer with Explanation

(B) With decreasing temperature, the observed hydrothermal alteration assemblage in a typical porphyry copper deposit is

(a) Potassic -phyllic -argillic -propylitic

(b) Argillic -phyllic -potassic -propylitic

(c) Phyllic -argillic -potassic -propylitic

(d) Propylitic -potassic -phyllic –argillic

View Answer with Explanation

(C)

The figure shows disposition of isotopic data in minerals from the alteration zones in a porphyry copper deposit

Disposition of Isotopic Data

The figure shows disposition of isotopic data in minerals from the alteration zones in a porphyry copper deposit

The figure shows disposition of isotopic data in minerals from the alteration zones in a porphyry copper deposit, which can be explained by

(a) Temperature decreases

(b) Fluid boiling

(c) Fluid mixing

(d) Fluid unfixing

View Answer with Explanation

Q-8. (A) Considering that the sedimentary basins are formed by complex interplay between crustal rigidity, geothermal gradient, isostasy and sediment infilling, identify the correct matching from the sets given below:

Isostasy and sediment infilling
Isostasy and sediment infilling, identify the correct matching from the sets given below

(A) Peripheral foreland basin

(1) Accretionary prism

(B) Rift basin

(2) Strike-slip fault

(C) Passive margin basin

(3) Thrust loading

(D) Pull-apart basin

(4) Wedge shaped seismic reflectors

(E) Trench basin

(5) Reefal limestone shale

(6) Glacial till ties

(7) Late rites

(a) A-4, B-5, C-3, D-1, E-7

(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-6, E-3

(c) A-3, B-4, C-5, D-2, E-1

(d) A-7, B-6, C-3, D-5, E-2

View Answer with Explanation

(B) The following conditions are given for rock undergoing weathering in different climates.

Case 1. Granite is exposed in arid and humid climatic regions

Case 2. Granite and gabbros are exposed in humid climatic region

Case 3. Granite exposed in humid, and gabbros

exposed in arid climatic region

Case 4. Granite and gabbros exposed in arid climatic region

Which of the following statement is not correct?

(a) Granite in Case 1 will weather to different extents.

(b) Rock in Case 3 will weather to similar extent.

(c) Rocks in Case 2 will weather to similar extent.

(d) Granite in Case 3 will weather to greater extent compared to gabbros

View Answer with Explanation

(C) A magma with entrained plagioclase crystals is flowing under simple shear deformation. Which one of the figures shown below is correct, assuming free rotation of plagioclase crystals in the flowing magma?

(a)

First assuming free rotation of plagioclase crystals in the flowing magma

First Assuming Free Rotation of Plagioclase

First assuming free rotation of plagioclase crystals in the flowing magma

(b)

Second assuming free rotation of plagioclase crystals in the flowing magma

Second Assuming Free Rotation of Plagioclase

Second assuming free rotation of plagioclase crystals in the flowing magma

(c)

Thired assuming free rotation of plagioclase crystals in the flowing magma

Thired Assuming Free Rotation of Plagioclase

Thired assuming free rotation of plagioclase crystals in the flowing magma

(d)

Four assuming free rotation of plagioclase crystals in the flowing magma

Four Assuming Free Rotation of Plagioclase

Four assuming free rotation of plagioclase crystals in the flowing magma

View Answer with Explanation

Q-9. The given geological map represents a folded and faulted terrain. Answer the following:

Geological map represents a folded and faulted terrain

Geological Map

Geological map represents a folded and faulted terrain

(A) The dips of the two limbs of folds are

(a) Both limbs dip in the same direction with same dip

(b) both limbs dip in the same directions, one dips at about Equation and the other at Equation

(c) Two limbs dip in opposite directions but with same dip

(d) One limb is vertical and the other limb has moderate dip Equation

View Answer with Explanation

(B) Axial trace is defined as trace of axial surface on the ground surface. How

many axial traces are present on the map.

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 5

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Assuming no stratigraphic inversion, the oldest and youngest rocks in this area are

(a) Oldest: flagstone; youngest: coarse grit

(b) Oldest: coarse grit; youngest: flagstone

(c) Oldest: sandstone; youngest: calcareous shale

(d) Oldest: volcanic group; youngest: sandstone

View Answer with Explanation

Q-10.

The figure above depicts a classic marine sedimentary sequence with various system tracts and surfaces

A Classic Marine Sedimentary Sequence

The figure above depicts a classic marine sedimentary sequence with various system tracts and surfaces

The figure above depicts a classic marine sedimentary sequence with

various system tracts and surfaces. The sequence has been drilled at a

several places and core samples collected. Answer the following?

(A) The thick solid line within the sequence is known as

(a) Transgressive surface

(b) Sequence boundary

(c) Maximum flooding surface

(d) Regressive surface of erosion

View Answer with Explanation

(B) The sediments at depth (b) are commonly represented by

(a) Evaporates

(b) Mass flows and turbidities

(c) Politic Limestone

(d) Phosphoresces

View Answer with Explanation

(C) The sediments near depth (c) typically show

(a) Coarsening up cycles

(b) Fining up cycles

(c) Invariant grain size

(d) Hiatus

View Answer with Explanation

Q-11. (A) If there is an embayment along the coastline experiencing long shore current, the following combinations of features may ultimately result

(a) Spit, bay mouth bar, lagoon

(b) Spit, lagoon, wave-cut platform

(c) Tom bolo, wave-cut platform, arches

(d) Spits, pillars, arches, stacks

View Answer with Explanation

(B) The stacks and arches are formed due to erosion of headland projecting into the sea under the influence of waves. The waves in such conditions are directed on all sides

(a) At right angle, towards the headland

(b) At an angle other than right angle, towards the headland

(c) Parallel to the headland, towards it

(d) Away from the headland

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Suppose the wave front approaches at an angle to the shoreline and the resulting drift is from north to south. What will happen towards the south of a groin built on the beach?

(a) The shoreline will accrete

(b) The shore line will erode

(c) The shore line will neither erode nor accrete

(d) Both erosion and accretion will occur

View Answer with Explanation

Q-12.(A) Match the following

Match the Sentence
Match the Sentence

(a) The amount of water vapour in the atmosphere is very low

(1) Cyclone

(b) Derives its energy from the latent heat released where water vapour condenses

(2) Monsoon

(c) Condensation of water vapour

(3) Aerosols

(d) Frozen rain

(4) Jet streams

(5) Greenland&

Antarctica

(6) Thunderstorm

(7) Hail

(8) Sleet

(9) Hot deserts

(a) A-9,B-6,C-8,D-3

(b) A-9,B-6,C-3,B-4

(c) A-5,A-9,B-1,B-6,C-3,D-8

(d) A-5,B_2,C-3,D-8

View Answer with Explanation

(B) Clouds and rain are unlikely to occur in descending air because it

(a) Cools and increases its capacity to hold moisture

(b) Cools and reduces its capacity to hold moisture

(c) Warms and reduces its capacity to hold moisture

(d) Warms and increases its capacity to hold moisture

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Read the following statements and choose the correct answer.

1. Hurricanes are similar to tornadoes in their mode of formation except the scale is bigger

2. In the southern hemisphere hurricane frequency is high in August

3. The frequency of hurricanes is high in northern Indian Ocean

4. There are no hurricanes along the west coast of South America

(a) A-True ,B-False , C- False ,D- True ,

(b) A-True ,B- True , C- False ,D True,

(c) A- False ,B- True , C- False ,D- ,

(d) A-True ,B- True , C- True ,D- True ,

View Answer with Explanation

Q-13. (A)

The above diagram gives two hydrographs

Two Hydrographs

The above diagram gives two hydrographs

The above diagram gives two hydrographs. Read the graphs and the statements below carefully and choose the correct option.

1. Curve A shows greater runoff rate

2. Curve B shows greater runoff rate

3. Curve A shows greater amount of runoff

4. Curve B shows greater amount of runoff

(a) A and B are true

(b) A and C are true

(c) A and D are true

(d) B and D are true

View Answer with Explanation

(B) The greater increase in runoff rate and amount in this case could be attributed to

(a) Narrowing of channel

(b) Construction of bridges

(c) Increase in paved areas and storm sewers

(d) Increased in forest area in the catchment

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Choose the correct statement: Curve A represents a drainage basin with

(a) Forest

(b) Forest and grassland

(c) Grassland

(d) Grazed grassland

View Answer with Explanation

Q-14. (A) Loamy soil constitutes a good agricultural soil. This is largely because loam

(a) Has much higher nutrient bearing clay

(b) Has a higher proportion of sand to make it highly arable

(c) Has roughly equal proportions of sand and silt for both aeration and nutrient Availability

(d) Is rich in silt which holds the soil moisture for a long time.

View Answer with Explanation

(B) Match the following

1. Zone of leaching

2. Zone of accumulation

3. Humus

4. Weathered parent material

5. ‘O’ horizon

6. ‘C’ horizon

7. ‘B’ horizon

8. ‘A’ horizon

9. Addition of carbon

10. Least chemical alteration

11. Loss of Ca, Mg, Na

12. Fe, Mn enrichment

(a) 1-8-13, 2-7-12, 3-5-10, 4-6-11

(b) 1-5-10, 2-6-11, 3-7-12, 4-8-13

(c) 1-8-12, 2-7-13, 3-5-10, 4-6-11

(d) 1-7-11, 2-6-13, 3-8-12, 4-5-10

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Identify whether true or false and the correct sequence

(1.) Alf sols occur in Savanna and drier forest zones

(2.) Verticals are common in rainforest zone and Savanna

(3.) Incept sols are young soils with limited profile development

(4.) Soils of Kerala, Meghalaya and Western Ghats are either ultimo’s or Alf sols

(a) A-True, B- True, C-False, D- True

(b) A- False, B- True, C- True, D- False

(c) A- True, B- False, C- False, D- True

(d) A- True, B- False, C- True, D- True

View Answer with Explanation

Q-15. (A) Match the following

15_A Match the sentence
15_A Match the sentence

a. Subsiding air

1. Sahara

b. Subsiding air and cold current

2. Basin and range province

c. Deep interior of continents

3. Kalahari

d. Rain shadow of mountains

4. Tibet

5. Okavango

6. Gobi

(a) a-2, b-2, c-5, d-2

(b) a-1, b-3, c-6, d-2

(c) a-1, b-2, c-5, d-5

(d) a-2,b-3,c-5,d-3

View Answer with Explanation

(B) Identify whether true or false and the correct sequence:

(1.) Pediment is a broad gently –sloping depositional surface and is formed by the coalescing of individual alluvial fans.

(2.) Mushroom rocks can form in rocky deserts because wind erosion by satiating sand is limited to 1 meter above the ground.

(3.) The horns of parabolic dunes point downwind and are anchored by vegetation.

(4.) Parabolic dunes are the most common dune type in the There desert of India.

(a) A-False, B- False, C- False, D- False

(b) A-True, B- True, C- False, D- True

(c) A-True, B- True, C- True, D- True

(d) A-False, B- True, C- False, D- True

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Match the following

15_C Match the sentence
15_C Match the sentence

Sand Supply

Sand Supply

Special characteristics

1. Limited sand

4. Transverse

8. Product of unidirectional winds

2. Abundant sand

5. Barchans

9. Oriented perpendicular

to wind direction

3. Moderate sand

6. Linear

10. Oriented parallel to wind direction

7. Star

(a) 1-5-8, 2-4-9, 3-6-10

(b) 1-6-8, 2-4-9, 3-5-10

(c) 1-5-8, 2-4-10, 3-6-9

(d) 1-5-9, 2-4-8, 3-6-10

View Answer with Explanation

Q-16. (A) Identify whether true or false and the correct sequence:

Image following is Number of student and Stream order

Number of Student and Stream Order

Image following is Number of student and Stream order

(1.) The bifurcation ratio for the stream C is higher than those of stream B and A

(2.) Stream A drains a plain area

(3.) The drainage density of stream A is higher than those of B and C

(4.) The bifurcation ratio of stream C and B are very similar

(a) A-False, B- False, C-True, D- True

(b) A-False, B- True, C-True, D- True

(c) A-False, B- False, C-True, D- False

(d) A-True, B- True, C-False, D- True

View Answer with Explanation

(B)

Image is following When in m and Discharge in m'/s

When in M and Discharge in M'/S

Image is following When in m and Discharge in m'/s

Identify whether true or false and the correct sequence:

1. River A is characterized by flash floods.

2. River B is very large because its width does not change much with discharge.

3. River C does not exists in nature

4. River C is characterized by easily erodible banks

(a) A-True, B- True, C- True, D- True

(b) A- True, B- False, C- True, D- False

(c) A- True, B- True, C- False, D- False

(d) A-False, B- False, C- False, D- False

View Answer with Explanation

(C)

A tectonically active area
The above streams is likely to occur in a tectonically active area

Parameter

Stream A

Stream B

Stream C

Stream D

Bifurcation

3.1

4.2

6.7

2.8

Drainage density Equation

2.0

5.9

3.9

8.2

Which one of the above streams is likely to occur in a tectonically active area?

(a) Stream A

(b) Stream B

(c) Stream C

(d) Stream D

View Answer with Explanation

Q-17. (A) Typhoons, coastal flooding, tsunamis, earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, landslides and avalanches are most severe in the

(a) Circum-Pacific belt

(b) Himalayan belt

(c) Alpine-Himalayan belt

(d) Circum-Pacific and Alpine Himalayan belts

View Answer with Explanation

(B) Match the following

17_A Match the sentence
17_A Match the sentence

Hazard

River

1. Flash flood

6. Brahmaputra

2. Sea water flood

7. Alakananda

3. Bank erosion

8. Kosi

4. Avulsion

9. Satluj

5. Natural dam failure

10. Mahanadi Delta

(a) 1-7,2-10,3-6,4-8,5-9

(b)1-6,2-10,3-7,4-9,5-8

(c) 1-6,2-10,3-9,4-7,5-8

(d) 1-8,2-6,3-10,4-7,5-9

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Identify whether true or false and the correct sequence:

(A) Water –saturated sand is less cohesive than damp sand.

(B) The angle of repose of fine sand is higher than that of coarse sand.

(C) If the surface material is unconsolidated, heavy rainfall induces earth flows and debris Flows.

(D) Rock avalanches differ from the rock slides by their much greater velocities and travel distance.

(a) A-True, B-False, C-True, D-False

(b) A- True, B- False, C- True, D- True

(c) A- False, B- False, C- True, D- True

(d) A- False, B- True, C- True, D- False

View Answer with Explanation

Q-18. (A) On a False Color Composite (FCC) image, bright red, black, grey and sky blue colors generally represent, respectively,

(a) Vegetation, settlements, lakes and rivers

(b) Vegetation, deep water and shadows, settlements and dry lakes

(c) Vegetation, deep water and shadows, settlements and shallow water

(d) Vegetation, shadows, settlements and shallow water

View Answer with Explanation

(B) Statements given below pertain to electromagnetic radiation. Identify whether true or false and the correct sequence:

(1.) Higher the wavelength, higher the frequency

(2.) Lower the frequency, higher the energy

(3.) Higher the wavelength, lower the energy

(4.) Higher the frequency, lower the energy

(5.) Higher the frequency, higher the energy

(a) 1-True, 2-False, 3- True, 4- False, 5- True

(b) 1- False, 2- True, 3- False, 4- False, 5- False

(c) 1- False, 2- False, 3- False, 4- True, 5-True

(d) 1- False, 2- False, 3- True, 4- False, 5- True

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Match the following

18_C Match the sentence
18_C Match the sentence

1. Active Remote Sensing

(a) Sun temperature

2. 8-14μm

(b) CARTOSAT

3. Temporal resolution

(c) Visible Region

4. Equation

(d) RBV

5. Stereo image

(e) RADAR

(f) Microwave Region

(g) Receptivity

(h) Thermal Region

(i) Spectral resolution

(a) 1-g, 2-c, 3-e, 4-h, 5-d

(b) 1-h, 2-f, 3-b, 4-i, 5-g

(c) 1-e, 2-h, 3-g, 4-a, 5-b

(d) 1-e, 2-i, 3-g, 4-h, 5-b

View Answer with Explanation

Q-19. (A) One of the following is the major source of marine pollution.

(a) Offshore mining and oil spills

(b) Ocean dumping

(c) Air borne Emission from land

(d) Runoff and discharge from land

View Answer with Explanation

(B) Identify whether true or false and the correct sequence

(A) Vegetation of the Tundra consists largely of lichens and dwarf trees.

(B) Evergreen coniferous forest is a separate biome.

(C) Next to the Rain forest, the densest forests are found in seasonal tropics.

(D) Savannas are tropical grasslands devoid of trees.

(a) A-False, B- False, C- False, D- False

(b) A-False, B- False, C- True, D- False

(c) A-False, B- True, C- True, D- True

(d) A-True, B- True, C- False, D- True

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Which two of the following ecological processes can occur because of a major disturbance such as flood, volcanic eruption or landslide in an area?

(A) Primary succession

(B) Secondary succession

(C) Change in niche structure

(D) Change in community structure

(a) A and B

(b) B and C

(c) C and D

(d) A and D

View Answer with Explanation

Q-20. An antecedent river flowing across the footwall of a rift basin debouches into the hanging wall block incising the normal fault scarp. Later during structural inversion state to compressive regime experience lateral block movements. Finally continued compressive stresses result in thrust related uplifts and folding.

(A) Identify the tectonic landform that would develop on the normal fault scarp

(a) Alluvial fans

(b) Paired terraces

(c) Unpaired terraces

(d) Sag Ponds

View Answer with Explanation

(B) Choose the correct strike-slip landform

(a) Sag Pond

(b) Offset drainage

(c) Beheaded stream

(d) Unpaired terraces

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Choose the correct options that signify behaviour of drainage flow close to fault related fold.

a. Drainage diversion

b. Lake formation

c. Stream incision

d. River meandering

(a) a, c, d

(b) a, b, c

(c) b, c, d

(d) a, d

View Answer with Explanation

Q-21. A spherical body produces a gravity field of 1000 gals and a rate of decrease of 0.5 mgal/m on its surface. The radius of the sphere is

(A) The radius of the sphere is

(a) 6,400 km

(b) 4,000 km

(c) 5,000 km

(d) 2,000 km

View Answer with Explanation

(B) The gravity field of the Earth will be half the value on its surface at a height of about

(a) 1000 km

(b) 1650 km

(c) 2560 km

(d) 1280 km

View Answer with Explanation

(C) In another sphere, twice the radius of the Earth but of the same density, the rate of decreases in its gravity field on the surface would be

(a) 0.5 mgal/m

(b) 0.25 mgal/m

(c) 0.125 mgal/m

(d) 1.0 mgal/m

View Answer with Explanation

Q-22. Magnetic anomaly profiles in the vertical component and total field across a two-dimensional horizontal cylindrical body are found to be similar with each other bearing a ratio of 2:1. If the profiles exhibit even symmetry

(A) The cylindrical body strikes

(a) E-W and has an effective vertical magnetization

(b) E-W and has an effective horizontal magnetization

(c) N-S and has an effective vertical magnetization

(d) N-S and has an effective horizontal magnetization

View Answer with Explanation

(B) The above survey is conducted at a place of magnetic inclination

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Which of the following statements is true?

(a) The anomalies with a larger magnitude relate to the total field; the anomalies in the horizontal component are zero everywhere

(b) The anomalies withal larger magnitude relate to the vertical field; the anomalies in the horizontal component are zero everywhere

(c) The anomalies with a larger magnitude relate to the total field; the

Anomalies in the horizontal component are similar to those in the other two components

(d) The anomalies with a larger magnitude relate to the vertical component; the anomalies in the horizontal component are similar to those in the other components

View Answer with Explanation

Q-23. Equation are the reflected phases of P and S waves at the fluid core-mantle boundary in an Earth model of radius 6,400 km, both the core and the mantle being homogenous and isotropic. These waves are not recorded beyond the epicentral distance of Equation then

(A) Equation

(a) Have common paths and are recorded simultaneously at any observatory.

(b) Have common paths, but are not recorded simultaneously.

(c) Do not have common paths, but are recorded simultaneously.

(d) do not have common paths and are not recorded simultaneously.

View Answer with Explanation

(B) The radius of the core, in km, is

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

(C) If the travel time of Equation phase at the epicentral distance of Equation is Equation seconds, its velocity in (km/sec) is

(a) 6.4

(b) 3.2

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

Q-24. The impulse (or source pulse) Equation velocity, thickness and density of layers are as shown in the following figure:

The impulse (or source pulse) s 1=(1,0,0); velocity, thickness and density of layers are as shown in the following figure:

Thickness and Density of Layers

The impulse (or source pulse) s 1=(1,0,0); velocity, thickness and density of layers are as shown in the following figure:

(A) The two way travel time for layer 1, at zero offset distance at receivers Equation to Equation .

(a) Is equal

(b) Differs at different receiver locations.

(c) Cannot be determined correctly.

(d) would be distinctly different for the sets Equation

View Answer with Explanation

(B) The synthetic seismogram would be

(a)

Firsr the synthetic seismogram

Firsr the Synthetic Seismogram

Firsr the synthetic seismogram

(b)

Second the synthetic seismogram

Second Synthetic Seismogram

Second the synthetic seismogram

(c)

Third the synthetic seismogram

Third Synthetic Seismogram

Third the synthetic seismogram

(d)

Four synthetic seismogram

Four the Synthetic Seismogram

Four synthetic seismogram

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Corrected the normal move out, the seismic section would be

(a)

First the seismic section

First the Seismic Section

First the seismic section

(b)

Second the seismic section

Second the Seismic Section

Second the seismic section

(c)

Third the seismic section

Third the Seismic Section

Third the seismic section

(d)

Four the seismic section

Four the Seismic Section

Four the seismic section

View Answer with Explanation

Q-25. The geophysical data set is invariably mixed with noise components which needs to be eliminated

(A) A random stationary noise can be eliminated using

(a) Cross correlation

(b) Auto correlation

(c) Moving average

(d) Fourier transform

View Answer with Explanation

(B) The Fourier transform of Equation

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

(C) If Equation are the input and filter functions respectively, then the amplitude and phase of the transfer function are

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

Q-26 (A) Equation is array of equally spaced electrodes of separation a in which current is passed through Equation and potential is measured between Equation and P2.The equation for apparent resistivity in terms calculated resistance R is

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

(B) In magntotelluric soundings,

(a) Conductivity information is obtained from shallower depth than from artificial field.

(b) Conductivity information is obtained from deeper depth than from artificial field.

(c) No conductivity information is obtained unlike from artificial field.

(d) Conductivity information is equivalent to the information obtained from artificial field.

View Answer with Explanation

(C) A low frequency plane wave propagating along the z-axis produces a displacement current, negligible compared to the conduction current, and

satisfies the differential equation Equation Then the solution is

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

Where d is the Sk in depth,

Equation depends on the conductivity of the body and the frequency of the field

Q-27 (A) The optimum solution of the following set of equations

Equation

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

(B) The following set of equations

Equation

(a) Are indeterminate, because it contains two dependent equations.

(b) Have an optimum single solution same as that in (A)

(c) Have an optimum single solution different from the one in (A)

(d) Have two solutions, one of which is same as that in (A)

View Answer with Explanation

(C) If the different equation Equation is satisfied at the initial values x=0 and y=1, then value of y at x=0.2, with Runge-Kutta method is

(a) 1.2428

(b) 1.4268

(c) 1.4678

(d) 1.5027

View Answer with Explanation

Q-28. The magnetic anomaly profile perpendicular to a tectonic feature is shown below:

The magnetic anomaly profile perpendicular to a tectonic feature

Magnetic Anomaly Profile Perpendicular

The magnetic anomaly profile perpendicular to a tectonic feature

(A) If a rock sample collected from the feature shows its permanent magnetism dipping up at Equation the feature is located at the time of its magnetization at about

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

(B) The tectonic feature exhibits

(a) Strong negative Bouguer and subdued free-air anomalies.

(b) Strong positive Bouguer and subdued free-air anomalies.

(c) Strong free-air and subdued Bouguer anomalies.

(d) Subdued free-air and Bouguer anomalies.

View Answer with Explanation

(C) The tectonic feature represents

(a) An active mid-oceanic ridge with spreading half rate of 4 cm/yr

(b) An inactive mid-oceanic ridge with spreading half rate of 4 cm/yr

(c) A subducting plate zone with subduction rate of 4 cm/yr

(d) A subducting plate zone with subduction rate of 2 cm/yr

View Answer with Explanation

Q-29 If the earth is

(A) Uniform, homogeneous and isotropic, then the potential U satisfies

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

(B) If a part of the media is conductive then

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

[E-electrified intensity; H-magnetic field intensity; B-magnetic flux; t-time]

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Which of the following hold good both for elastic and conductive media

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

Where C is the velocity of the wave

View Answer with Explanation

Q-30.(A) If the Bulk-water-wet resistivity of a rock sample Equation and the resistivity of the water contained in its pores Equation then formation P resistivity factor is

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

(B) Formation resistivity factor F is determined as

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

{ Equation Bulk-water-wet resistivity}

{ Equation }

View Answer with Explanation

(C)

The Chart and slate beds are identified from well log data using relative-y ray intensity

Chart and Slate Beds Are Identified

The Chart and slate beds are identified from well log data using relative-y ray intensity

Resistivity and magnetic susceptibility logs

Resistivity and Magnetic

Resistivity and magnetic susceptibility logs

The Chart and slate beds are identified from well log data using relative-y

ray intensity, Resistivity and magnetic susceptibility logs. The stratified

beds are given here and identify the correct log sections.

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

View Answer with Explanation

Q-31

(A) Match the following instruments used in satellite meteorology with the parameter

Which they measure:

(a) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv), and E-(v)

(b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(vi), D-(viii), E-(vii)

(c) A-(viii), B-(vii), C-(vi), D-(v), E-(iv)

(d) A-(vii), B-(v), C-(iii), D-(i), and E-(ii)

View Answer with Explanation

(B) The radiances measured from the tops of four different clouds are respectively (A) 100 Equation (B) 150 Equation (C) 125 Equation and (D) Equation which is the increasing order of altitudes of the clouds?

(a) B, C, D, A

(b) A, B, C, D

(c) B, A, D, C

(d) B, C, A, D

View Answer with Explanation

(C) A A satellite going around a planet of radius 6000 km , at a height of 36,000 km from its surface takes a day to complete one revolution. What would be the period of another satellite orbiting the same planet at half the altitude (i.e., 18,000 km from the surface)?

(a) Higher by a factor of Equation

(b) Lower by a factor of Equation

(c) Higher by a factor of Equation

(d) Lower by a factor of Equation

View Answer with Explanation

Q-32 (A) Identify the correct statement:

(a) Atmospheric Equation concentration in forests is lower during the night than During the day

(b) The energy derived by burning fossil fuels (coal, oil, wood etc.) comes from The Sun

(c) The burning of agricultural products (hay etc.) increases the atmospheric Carbon dioxide concentration.

(d) Stronger oxidants than oxygen can persist for login natural environments

View Answer with Explanation

(B) The journal Science noted a particular molecule as the „molecule of the year‟ This molecule destroys ozone, is a precursor of acid rain and is essential to activities in the human brain and body’s immune system. Identify this molecule:

(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Methane

(c) Nitric Oxide

(d) Sulphur dioxide

View Answer with Explanation

(C) The energy required to dissociate Equation in the Earth’s atmosphere by photolysis is 304 kJ/mole. What should be the minimum frequency of electromagnetic radiation required for dissociating? Equation

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

Q-33

(A) The speeds of in compressible fluid elements across the different faces of A small cubic volume of side ‘a’ are shown below. Find the value of x

A small cubic volume of side ‘a’ are shown below

A Small Cubic Volume

A small cubic volume of side ‘a’ are shown below

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

(B) the velocity field of a fluid is given by Equation in the Cartesian co-ordinates. Which of the following is true for this field?

(a) The fluid is incompressible

(b) The flow is irrigational

(c) The vortices is positive definite

(d) The acceleration is zero

View Answer with Explanation

(C) For the velocity field given in (b) what is the Carioles force? ( Equation = angular velocity of the earth)

(a) Equation

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

Q-34 (A) The hydrostatic approximation used in general circulation models assures that

(i) The atmosphere is static and devoid of motions

(ii) The motion in the vertical is small compared to the horizontal motion

(iii) p =hgP, where p = pressure, h = altitude and g = acceleration due to gravity and P = density of air

(iv) Motion in the horizontal is negligible compared to motion in the vertical.

The correct statements from the list above are

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (ii) and (iii)

(c) (iii) and (iv)

(d) Only (iii)

View Answer with Explanation

(B) Ocean-atmosphere coupled models are more useful in the following time scales

(a) Hourly

(b) Daily

(c) Weekly

(d) Seasonal

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Identify whether the following statements are true or false, and identify the correct sequence.

(i) Zonal mixing is more efficient than meridional mixing

(ii) A zonal wind of 1m/s at Equation has a higher angular momentum per unit mass than a zonal wind of 1m/s at Equation

(iii) ice-albedo feedback is a positive feed back

(iv)Water vapour is not a greenhouse gas

(v) El-Nino happens in the Eastern Pacific

(a) (i)True; (ii)False; (iii) True; (iv) False; (v) True

(b) (i) False; (ii) False; (iii) True; (iv) False; (v) True

(c) (i) False; (ii) True; (iii) False; (iv) False; (v) True

(d) (i) True; (ii) True; (iii) True; (iv) True; (v) False

View Answer with Explanation

Q-35 (A) which of the following statements are correct regarding sunspots?

(i) They are cooler regions on the solid surface relative to their surroundings

(ii) They are hotter regions on the solar surface relative to their surroundings

(iii) They are regions where magnetic fields are higher

(iv) They are regions where there are no magnetic fields

(a) (i) and (iii)

(b) (ii) and (iv)

(c) (i) and (ii)

(d) (iii) and (iv)

View Answer with Explanation

(B) The solar maximum occurs

(a) Once in 11 years, when the sun spot number is close to zero

(b) Once in 22 years, when sunspot number is maximum

(c) Once in 11 years, when sunspot number is maximum

(d) Once in 22 years, when the sun spot number is close to zero

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Cosmic rays are modulated by solar activity and therefore production of radioisotopes such as Equation in the Earth’s atmosphere caused by cosmic rays are affected by solar activity

(a) One can expect a 50 year periodicity in the Equation production

(b) One can expect all known climatic periodicities in Equation production

(c) One cannot expect any solar periodicities in Equation production because its half life is 5700 years.

(d) The longest solar periods are likely to be reflected in Equation records.

View Answer with Explanation

Q-36 (A) Identify the positive feedbacks from the list below;

(i) Vegetation – rain

(ii) Aerosols - clouds

(iii) Aerosols-isolation at surface

(iv) Methane-radioactive forcing

(v) Nitrous oxide-troposphere ozone

(a) (i),(ii) and (iv)

(b) (i) and (ii)

(c) (iii) and (iv)

(d) (i) and (iii)

View Answer with Explanation

(B) Identify the false statements from the list below:

(i) Carioles force for horizontal winds is maximum near the equator

(ii) Rain releases latent heat in the troposphere

(iii) Stratosphere has the maximum water content

(iv) Geotropic flow is parallel to isobars

(v) Maximum pressure gradient is along isobars

(a) (i), (iii) and (v)

(b) (ii) and (iv)

(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(d) (i),(iii) and (iv)

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Solar radiation of Equation is received by a dry air parcel of 1 atm. pressure leading to an increase in its volume by Equation , with no change in the position of its of centre mass. What is the approximate change in the internal energy of the panel?

(a) 44 J

(b) Equation

(c) Equation

(d) Equation

View Answer with Explanation

Q-37. (A) The Clausius-Clapeyron equation gives the amount of water vapour that can saturate the atmosphere at a given temperature. Which of the following diagrams correctly depicts the variation of Equation (partial pressure of water vapour) with absolute temperature T?

The amount of water vapour that can saturate the atmosphere at a given temperature

The Atmosphere at a Given Temperature

The amount of water vapour that can saturate the atmosphere at a given temperature

(a) (i) and only

(b) (i) and (ii)

(c) (i),(ii) and (iii)

(d) (iv)

View Answer with Explanation

(B) Identify the correct diagrams that describe the variation of pressure (p) with altitude (h) in the earth’s atmosphere:

The variation of pressure (p) with altitude (h) in the earth’s atmosphere

The Earth’S Atmosphere

The variation of pressure (p) with altitude (h) in the earth’s atmosphere

(a) (i) Only

(b) (i) and (ii)

(c) (i),(ii) and (iii)

(d) (ii) and (iii)

View Answer with Explanation

(C) Identify the isentropic process/processes in the following list;

(i) Expansion of a filled, closed rubber balloon as it goes up

(ii) Rapid ascent of an air parcel

(iii) Condensation of water vapour to rain

(iv) Evaporation from the ocean surface

(a) (i) Only

(b) (ii) and (i)

(c) (iii) and (iv)

(d) (iv) Only

View Answer with Explanation

Q-38. Considering Equation to be the radius of the Earth and Equation its mean absolute temperature, Equation as its mean albedo, Equation the solar constant and Equation Stefan’s constant, the simple energy balance model can be written as;

(a) Equation