# CSIR Earth-Sciences-December Solved 2012

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## Part A

1. A granitic block of 2m 5m 3m size is cut into 5cm thick slabs of 2m 5m size. These slabs are laid over a 2 m wide pavement. What is the length of the pavement that can be covered with these slabs?

A. 100 m

B. 200 m

C. 300 m

D. 500 m

Answer: C

2. Which is the least among the following?

,,,

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: D

3. What is next number in this “see and tell” sequence?

1 11 21 1222 111221 _______

A. 312211

B. 1112221

C. 1112222

D. 1112131

Answer: A

4. A vertical pole of length a stands at the centre of a horizontal regular hexagonal group of side a. A rope that is fixed taut in between a vertex on the ground and the tip of the pole has a length

A. a

B.

C.

D.

Answer: B

5. A peacock perched on the top of a 12 m high tree spot a snake moving towards its hole at the base of the tree from a distance equal to thrice the height of the tree. The peacock flies towards the snake in a straight line and they both move at the same speed. At what distance from the base of the tree will the peacock catch the snake?

A. 16 m

B. 18 m

C. 14 m

D. 12 m

Answer: A

6. The cities of a country are connected by intercity road. If a city is directly connected to an odd number of other cities, it is called an odd city. If a city is directly connected to an even number of other cities, it is called an odd even city. Then which of the following is impossible?

A. There are an even number of odd cities

B. There are an odd number of odd cities

C. There are an even number of even cities

D. There are an odd number of odd cities

Answer: B

7. What is the ratio of the area of triangle ADC to that of triangle CDB?

A. 1:1

B.1:2

C. 1:3

D. 1:4

Answer: B

8. A rectangular sheet ABCD is folded in such a way that vertex A meets vertex C, thereby forming a line PQ. Assuming AB=3 and BC=4, find PQ Note that AP=PC and AQ=QC.

A. 13/4

B. 15/4

C. 17/4

D. 19/4

Answer: B

9. A string of diameter 1mm is kept on a table in the shape of a close flat spiral i.e. a spiral with no gap between the turns. The area of table occupied by the spiral is 1 . Then the length of the string is

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: C

10. 25% of 25% of a quantity is X% of the quantity where x is

A. 6.25%

B. 12.5%

C. 25%

D. 50%

Answer: A

11. In sequence every term is equal to the sum of all its previous terms.

A. 3

B. 2

C. 1

D. e

Answer: B

12. In the figure below, angle ABC=. I, II, III are the areas of semicircles on the sides opposite angles B, A, and C, respectively. Which of the following is always true?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: B

13. What is the minimum number of days between one Friday the and the next Friday the ? (Assume that the year is a leap year).

A. 28

B. 56

C. 91

D. 84

Answer: C

14. Suppose a person A is at the North-East corner of a square (see figure below). From that point he moves along the diagonal and after covering portion of the diagonal, he goes to his left and after sometime he stops, rotates clockwise and moves straight. After a few minutes he stops, rotates anticlockwise. Towards which direction he is facing now?

A. North-East

B. North-West

C. South-East

D. South-West

Answer: A

15. Cucumber contains 99% water. Ramesh buys 100kg of cucumbers. After 30 day of storing, the cucumbers lose some water. They now contain 98% water. What is the total weight of cucumbers now?

A. 99 kg

B. 50 kg

C. 75 kg

D. 2 kg

Answer: B

16. In a museum there were old coins with their respective years engraved on them, as follows.

A. 1837 AD

B. 1907 AD

C. 1947 AD

D. 200 BC

Identify the fake coin(s)

Answer: B

17. A student observes the movement of four snails and plots the graphs of distance moved as a function of time as given in figures (A),(B) (C) and (D).

Which of the following is not correct?

A. Graph (A)

B. Graph (B)

C. Graph (C)

D. Graph (D)

Answer: C

18. Find the missing letter:

A. H

B. L

C. Z

D. Y

Answer: C

19. Consider the following equation

Where x, y and z are real numbers. Then the value of is

A. 7

B. 14

C. 21

D. not unique

Answer: C

20. The map given below shows a meandering river following a semi-circular path, along which two villages are located at A and B. The distance between A and B along the east-west direction in the map is 7 cm. What is the length of the river between A and B in the ground?

A. 1.1 km

B. 3.5 km

C. 5.5 km

D. 11.0 km

Answer: C

## Part 2

21. In the Himalaya, rock layers often show fold structures, which have formed by buckling in response to

A. Layer-parallel shear forces

B. Cross-layer compressive forces

C. Layer-parallel compressive forces

D. Cross-layer gravity force

Answer: C

22. What is the name of the geological process for the following chemical reaction?

A. Dolomitization

B. Sea floor weathering

C. Cementation

D. Recrystallization

Answer: A

23. The soil which forms under wet climate but is incapable of supporting agricultural production is

A. Alluvial soil

B. Aridisol

C. Laterite

D. Andisol

Answer: C

24. syn-sedimentary deformational structures are a result of.

A. Low sedimentation

B. High sedimentation

C. Marine transgression

D. Marine regression

Answer: B

25. Thermal plumes formed in the mantle ascend upward due to

A. Plate Convergence

B. Buoyancy Force

C. Thermal Contraction

D. Phase transformation

Answer: A

26. Compared to clay, fine grained sandstone has

A. Higher porosity and lower permeability

B. Higher porosity and higher permeability

C. Lower porosity and lower permeability

D. lower porosity and higher permeability

Answer: D

27. The highest concentration of anthropogenic CO is found in deep waters of

A. North pacific ocean

B. Mediterranean Sea

C. Bay of Bengal

D. North Atlantic ocean

Answer: D

28. Most faults in the Himalaya are

A. Strike-slip

B. Thrust

C. Normal

D. Transform

Answer: B

29. Earthquakes with deep foci (~700km) are common in

A. Mid-oceanic ridges

B. Island arcs

C. Himalayan Mountain belt

D. Continental rifts

Answer: B

30. Distinction between crystalline and amorphous substances can always be inferred by

A. Optical microscopy

B. X-ray diffraction analysis

C. X-ray fluorescence

D. Laser Raman microprobe

Answer: B

31. Identify the correct statement:

Heat flow

A. Decreases linearly with the age of the ocean floor

B. Decreases as the square root of the age of the ocean floor

C. Increases as the square root of the age of the ocean floor

D. Increases linearly with the age of the ocean floor

Answer: B

32. Glacial-interglacial temperature contrast is the smallest in the equatorial mainly because

A. It receives more precipitation

B. It is more cloudy

C. it receive more solar radiation on the average

D. Of more continental are in the equatorial belt

Answer: C

33. Which of the following sequence represents increasing slope?

A. Shore-continental shelf-continental slope

B. Continental shelf-continental slope-shore

C. Continental slope-continental shelf-shore

D. Continental shelf- shore-continental slope

Answer: A

34. “Ediacaran fossils” have significance in determining the

A. Archean/Proterozoic boundary

B. Precambrian/Cambrian boundary

C. Permian/Triassic boundary

D. Cretaceous/tertiary boundary

Answer: B

35. Statement I: the Earth’s normal spheroid is a mean mathematical surface of the irregular geoid.

Statement II: The normal spheroid lies above the geoid on oceans and below it under the continents.

A. Statements I and II are true

B. Statement I is true; II is false

C. Statement I is false; II is true

D. Statements I and II are false

Answer: A

36. If the Sun were to rotate faster than the present, there would be an increase in

A. The Earth’s magnetic field

B. The magnitude of diurnal variation of the Earth’s magnetic field

C. Intensity of magnetic disturbances

D. Frequency of magnetic storms

Answer: D

37. Statement I: Seismic waves travel faster solids than in fluids.

Statement II: P-wave velocity in water-saturated sandstone is lower than in dry sandstones.

A. Statements I and II are true; I explain II

B. Statements I and II are true; but I does not explain II

C. Statement I is false; II is true.

Answer: C

38. The epicenter of a deep-focus earthquake typically lies

A. Between 300-700 km depth

B. Between 70-300 km depth

C. 30-70 km depth

D. On the ground surface

Answer: D

39. The Earth’s gravity increases from the equator to the pole. Where does the gravity field have a maximum N-S gradient?

A. At the equator

B. At latitude

C. At the pole

D. Both at the equator and pole

Answer: D

40. The definitive proportion of carbon(C), nitrogen (N) and phosphorous (P) required for phytoplankton growth is referred to Redfield ratio. Which one of the following ratios of C:N:P best describes Redfield ration/

A. 106:26:2.6

B. 1:106:16

C. 106:16:1

D. 186:18.6:1

Answer: C

41. If F is the magnetic field on the Earth’s surface, the magnetic field measured at a height equivalent to the Earth’s radius would be

A. 0.5F

B. .0.25F

C. 0.125F

D. 0.0625F

Answer: C

42. and are the seismic wave velocities,, of overlying and underlying media respectively. The wave incident at an angle i on the interface is partly refracted and partly reflected.

A. For all values of i

B. Only if

C. Only if

D. Only if

Answer: A

43. Power diffractograms of clay minerals are usually observed at lower angles of diffraction than that of primary silicate minerals due to

A. Its corn position

B. Presence of basal cleavage

C. Small crystallographic interplanar spacing

D. Large crystallographic interplanar spacing

Answer: D

44. Cementation before compaction in sediments will result in

A. Increase in porosity

B. Decrease in grain to grain contact

C. Increase in grain to grain contact

D. Increase in permeability

Answer: B

45. A sedimentary rock included fossils of two species that are known to have lived between 680-630 and 650-350 million years ago. What could be the age of the rock?

A. 645 million years

B. 680 million years

C. 350 million year

D. 620 million year

Answer: A

46. Which one of the following geological is INCORRECTLY matched?

A. Mariana Trench - Atlantic Ocean

B. Bermuda Rise - Atlantic Ocean

C. Ninety East Ridge - Indian Ocean

D. Carlsberg Ridge - Indian Ocean

Answer: A

47. Concentration of water (e.g. versus )in a soil profile is

A. Likely to be higher at the bottom

B. Likely to be higher at the top

C. Randomly distributed

D. Uniform

Answer: A

48. At water table of an aquifer

A. Hydrostatic pressure >> Atmospheric pressure

B. Hydrostatic pressure < Atmospheric pressure

C. Hydrostatic pressure = Atmospheric pressure

D. Hydrostatic pressure << Atmospheric pressure

Answer: C

49. Which one of the following statement about condensation is INCORRECT?

A. Convective cooling occurs when air rises in thermals during daytime

B. Advective cooling occurs when there is a horizontal transfer of cold moist air over an adjacent warm surface.

C. In adiabatic cooling the air is cooled by the reduction of pressure with height rather than by loss of heat

D. In frontal uplift, cooling occurs when the warmer air tend to glide over the cold air

Answer: B

50. At present, Earth’s perihelion occurs on July. Roughly how many years will it take for the perihelion to occur on July?

A. 11000 years

B. 22000 years

C. 41000 years

D. 100000 years

Answer: A

51. Surface chlorophyll concentration during a bloom in the Arabia Sea is 1.5 Assuming chlorophyll concentration to be the same throughout the column, what is the column integrated chlorophyll concentration, if the column depth is 45m?

A. 67.5

B.67.5

C.

D. 67.5

Answer: D

52. A strong convective weather event

A. Increases the tropopause height

B. Decreases the tropopause height

C. Is unlikely to make any change in the tropopause height

D. Increases the tropopause temperature.

Answer: A

53. Geopotential height is used instead of geometric height to compensate for the decrease of which one of the following parameters, above the Earth’s surface?

A. Gravitational acceleration

B. Pressure

C. Temperature

D. Density

Answer: A

54. In the stratosphere, the lapse rate is positive because

A. Diatomic Nitrogen absorbs solar radiation

B. Greenhouse gases absorb the long wave radiations from the Earth’s surface

C. Stratospheric aerosol reflect the incoming solar radiation

D. solar ultraviolet radiation is absorbed by ozone molecules

Answer: D

55. Dissolved oxygen concentration in the deep oceanic waters (>2000 m) is close to that at surface, because of the

A. Non-existence of biological organisms at depth.

B. Low rates of biological oxygen consumption

C. Supply of oxygen through chemical process at high pressure.

Answer: B

56. What is The ration of the intensities of solar radiation on the tops of the atmospheres of two planets A and B whose periods of revolution around the sun are ?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: B

57. A man gets into an eastbound at the equator. After getting into the train he experiences.

A. No Change in his apparent weight

B. An increase in his apparent weight depending on the speed of train, radius of Earth and his own weight

C. A decrease in his apparent weight, depending on the speed of train, angular velocity of Earth’s rotation, and his own weight

D. A decrease in his apparent weight, depending on the speed of the train, radius of Earth, angular velocity of Earth’s rotation and his own weight

Answer: D

58. A radar is not able to detect a cyclone over the sea at a distance more than 400 km from it because.

A. It has limited power to detect the clouds at that distance

B. The clouds at distances more than 400km from radar site are in the blind zone of radar due to the curvature of the Earth

C. The clouds are not deep enough to be detectable by the radar

D. The clouds have small rain drops which are not able to reflect the radar waves back

Answer: B

59. At great depths in the oceans, which of the following relation is correct for in-situ temperature (l), Potential temperature), density and potential density?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: A

60. In the oceans seasonal thermocline develops in the

A. Low latitudes during summer

B. Mid latitudes during winter

C. High latitudes

D. Mid latitudes during summer

Answer: D

61. In high nutrient-low chlorophyll regions, biological productivity is low mainly because of

A. Nitrate deficiency

B. Insufficient sunlight

C. Limitation of micronutrients such as iron

D. Intense grazing pressure.

Answer: C

62. Cyclones can form

A. Over warm tropical oceans

B. Over oceans irrespective of location

C. Within latitude from the equator over tropical oceans

D. Outside latitude from the equator over warm tropical oceans.

Answer: D

63. With reference to stratospheric ozone depletion which of the following statement is FALSE?

A. Heterogeneous reactions are responsible for depletion on the surface of polar stratospheric clouds

B. Br compounds are less effective than CL compounds in destroying stratospheric

C. is formation only at low temperatures

D. The formation of dimer does not depend on atomic oxygen concentration in the stratosphere.

Answer: B

64. , the environmental lapse rate and dry adiabatic lapse rate, respectively, are shown in the figure below. An unsaturated air parcel at position ‘O’, as shown in the figure, undergoes vertical displacement. What is the nature of atmospheric stability?

A. Statically stable

B. Unstable

C. Conditionally stable

D. Absolutely stable

Answer: A

65. How would the solar constant change if both the Sun-Earth distance and the effective blackbody temperature of the sun were doubled?

A. Increase by a factor of 4

B. Decrease by a factor of 4

C. Remain unchanged

D. Increase by a factor of 16

Answer: A

66. Urbanization does NOT lead to

A. An increase in the infiltration of rainwater

B. Salt water intrusion to group water

C. Lowering of group water table

D. Increased dust production

Answer: A

67. Silicates are the most common rock-forming mincrals because

A. O and Si are the most abundant elements in the Earth’s crust

B. Silicate radical is stable in a narrow range of pressure & temperature condition

C. These are resistant to weathering

D. These have diverse crystal structures

Answer: A

68. The net Ekman transport, accumulated over all depths, in the northern hemisphere is

A. To the right of the wind direction

B. To the left of the wind direction

C. Directly towards towards shore

D. Directly away from the shore

Answer: A

69. Which one of the following statements about high tides is INCORRECT?

A. High tide does not occur at the same time every day

B. The maximum tidal rise occurs during the time of solstices.

C. The maximum tidal rise occurs during the time of equinoxes.

D. There are two high tides in every 24 hrs and 50 minutes in some places.

Answer: C

70. Identify the correct pair of glacial landforms that provide information about the direction of ice motion.

A. Drumlins and roches moutons

B. Kames and eskers

C. Eskers and kettle hole

D. Terminal and group moraines.

Answer: A

## PART 3

71. (A) Which of the following indicates that the Deccan basalt eruption was of intermittent type?

A. Infratrappeans

B. Intertrappean

C. Supratrappeans

D. Compositional variations in basalt

Answer: B

(B) Generally, coal seams in the Raniganj Formation are characterizes by low ash and higher vitrinite compared to Barakar coal. Higher quality of Raniganj coal was due to

A. Rise in groundwater level during burial of plant debris.

B. Rapid burial of plant debris.

C. Slow burial of plant debris.

D. Swallowing up of the basin.

Answer: A

(C) Sandstone in the Siwalik basin is often characterized by the presence of limestone clasts, which indicate

A. The siwalik sediments are of marine origin.

B. Limestone has precipitated from a Himalayan river.

C. Sediments from the Himalaya are transported

D. Late diagenesis of sandtone has taken place.

Answer: C

72. (A) In an are forming process U and Fe are deposited as oxide minerals respectively in one of the following environments

A. oxidizing, reducing

B. reducing, oxidizing

C. oxidizing, oxidizing

D. reducing, reducing

Answer: B

(B) Which one of the following metal associations is porphyry-type, magmatic sulphide and sediment-hosted ore deposits of copper respectively?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: C

(C)

From the above diagram it can inferred that

A. More abundant metals form large ore deposits

B. More abundant metals from small ore deposits

C. Crustal rocks are the source for metals of ore deposits

D. Crustal rocks are not the source for metals of ore deposits

Which of the above statement are correct?

A. a and c

B. b and d

C. a and d

D. b and c

Answer: A

73. (A) On a horizontal ground surface two folds, I and II show the following outcrop patterns.

Geometrically, fold I and II are respectively:

A. Include plunging synform; reclined

B. Include horizontal synform; recumbent

C. Upright plunging antifoam; reclined

D. Upright plunging synform; recumbent

Answer: C

(B) Two sets of shear joints have been measured in the field in the and are plotted on a stereographic net as show below:

The principal compression in this area had

A. N-S trend

B. Vertical direction

C. NW-SE trend

D. NE-SW trend

Answer: D

(C) In a simple shear zone a penetrative fabric has developed parallel to the XY-plane of strain ellipsoid and makes an angle of to the shear zone boundary. The amount of finite shear (y) is then:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: B

74. Pressure and temperature conditions at two different depths of slabs observed in two different subduction zones, a and b given in the table below:

 Depth(km) temp ) a b 18 250 500 30 500 800

(A) What are the metamorphic facies expected at 30 km depth for a and b, respectively?

A. Green schist and granulite

B. Eclogite and granulite

C. Granulite and eclogite

D. Green schist and eclogite

Answer: B

(B) Which one of the following metamorphic reactions is expected to tack place in slab b at 30 km depth?

A. epidote + actinolite + chlorite + hornblende + actinolite + plagioclase

B. hornblende + quartz + plagioclase pyrope + omphasite +

C. hornblende + actinolite + quartz + hornblende + plagioclase

D. hornblende + plagioclase + quartz + clinopyroxene + plagioclase +

Answer: D

(C) Slab a represent which one of the following type of subduction corn pared to slab b?

A. Low angle and slower subduction

B. High angle and slower subduction

C. Fossil subduction

D. High angle and faster subduction

Answer: D

75.

Stereographic projection of a crystal is shown in the diagram with standard notation of crystallographic axes and faces.

(A) This crystal belongs to

A. Class 2 of monoclinic system

B. Class 222 of orthorhombic system

C. Class 2/m of monoclinic system

D. Class 422 of tetragonal system

Answer: B

(B) The faces which are related with a 2-fold rotation about a-axis are

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: C

(C) The {hkl} form of this crystal is

A. Disphenoid

B. Prism

C. Pedion

D. Pinacoid

Answer: A

76.

The given diagram show formation of different clay minerals as a function of rainfall

(A) Smectite would be the most a abundant clay mineral under semiarid condition by weathering of

A. Granite

B. Basalt

C. Sandstone

D. Dunite

Answer: B

(B) What would be the expected geochemical trend with increasing rainfall as per the diagram above?

A. Increase in

B. Increase in

C. Increase in

D. Decrease in

Answer: C

(C) In the A-horizon of the soil weathering-profile developed under wet condition what would be the clay mineral assemblage expected?

1. Gibbsite-vermiculite-kaolinite

2. Smectite-gibbsite-vermiculite

3. Smectite-hallosite-gibbsite

4. Gibbsite-smectite

Answer: A

77. (A) Pb is compatible in which one of the following minerals?

A. Muscovite

B. Biotite

C. Diopside

D. Orthoclase

Answer: D

(B) If high concentration of radioactive elements is present in a mineral, it causes

A. Increase in birefringence

B. Metamictization

C. Lowering of d-spacing

D. Change of crystal form

Answer: B

(C) A basaltic magma had undergone fractional crystallization of pyroxene and plagioclase.

A. Sr and Ni

B. Cr and Sr

C. Cr and Ni

D. Ce and Zr

Answer: D

78.

(A) A magma of composition X in the above diagram cools and crystallizes. On reaching liquidus what will be the first phase to appear and degree of freedom (F) at 1 atm. pressure?

A. Enstatite, F=1

B. Forsterite, F=2

C. Enstatite, F=0

D. Forsterite, F=1

Answer: D

(B) On further cooling of the magma to C which one of following reaction occur?

A. Forsterite + Cristobalite Enstatite

B. Forsterite + liquid liquid

C. Enstatite Forsterite +

D. Enstatite +

Answer: B

(C) On complete equilibrium crystallization of magma X, the resulting mineral assemblage would be.

A. 67 wt % Forsterite and 33 wt% cristobalite

B. 90 wt % Enstatite and 10 wt% cristobalite

C. 33.3 wt % each of Forsterite, Enstatite and cristobalite

D. 50 wt % each of Enstatite and quartz

Answer: B

79. (A) 4, 4, 14, 40, 88 is the series of number generated by assigning progressively increasing values to the variable in a polynomial, The next number in the series is.

A. 148

B. 156

C. 164

D. 172

Answer: C

(B) If the Fourier transform of Z / () is , the Fourier transform of the function is

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: B

(C) If A(1), and A(2), are the amplitude and phase spectra of two filters 0.5 + Z and 1.0 + 0.5Z, respectively then

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: B

80. is a closed surface enclosing a distribution of matter . is another closed surface surrounding with a distribution of matter lying between and , and

are the gravity potential due to respectively, and are the gravity fields on respectively normal to their surfaces. P(0,0,0) is any point outside with axis taken as positive vertically downwards. G is the universal gravitational constant.

(A) Which of the following are true?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: C

(2) At P,

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: A

(3) If and , then

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: D

81. Total field magnetic anomalies due to spherical ore bodies satisfy the differential equation

where Z is the depth to the centre of the sphere, A of Very large magnetic susceptibility K is inductively magnetized in the earth’s magnetic field at the magnetic latitude of and generates a maximum anomaly of 300 gamma/meter, and vertical component of the anomaly is zero.

(A) The depth to the centre of the sphere is

A. 600 m

B. 900 m

C. 1.20 km

D. 1.50km

Answer: B

(B) The anomaly in the horizontal component, where the vertical component anomaly is zero, is

A. 220 gammas

B. 260 gammas

C. 346 gammas

D. 424 gammas

Answer: D

(C) If H is the earth’s magnetic field at the equator, the intensity of induced magnetism in the body is,

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: D

82. Consider an imaginary earth model of thick fluid core surrounded by a thick mantle and or no crust. The density in the mantle increases from 3.0 at the surface to 5.0 at the core-mantle boundary, and it abruptly to 10.0 gm/cc in the core. The velocity of the P wave increases, from 3.0 km/sec to 8.0 km/sec in the mantle, and it abruptly falls to 4.0 km/sec in the core. Direct P waves emanating from an earthquake at angles of incidence less than cannot be received anywhere on the earth’s surface. Further the time of arrival of the P wave increases at a rate of 250 sec/radian prior to the onset of shadow zone.

(A) Which phase of the _-wave is not at all recorded on the earth’s surface?

A. PPP

B. PKP

C. PcP

D. pPP

Answer: C

(B) The radius of earth model is,

1. 3200 km

2. 4000 km

3. 4800 km

4. 5600 km

Answer: B

(C) The radius of the core is,

1. 1600 km

2. 2000 km

3. 2400 km

4. 2800 km

Answer: B

83. The tangent drawn to the travel time curve over a horizontal reflector, at a certain poin P, is found to have a gradient of are the velocities of the overlying and underlying media, respectively, and Z is the depth to the reflector.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: C

(B) The tangent cuts the time axis at,

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: B

(C) With reference to the data provided above, consider the following two statements:

Statement I : The tangent at any point to the reflection travel time curve for the finite spread length cannot have a slope of

Statement II: The velocity of the underlying medium is greater than that of the overlying medium.

A. Statement I and II are valid

B. Statement I is valid; II is valid

C. Statement I is invalid; II is valid

D. Statement I and II are invalid

Answer: A

84. (A) Oceanic lithosphere cools and thickens as a function of age away from mid-oceanic ridge and it is represented by cooling half-space model. If its thickness at 10 Ma is 10km, what will be its thickness at 40 Ma?

A. 24km

B. 32 km

C. 40 km

D. 20 km

Answer: D

(B) In a continental lithosphere, the crust contributes to 30% of the total surface heat flux. The region undergoes a thrusting event , when the thickness of the crust is doubled. Assuming that the mantle heat flux remains unchanged, the new surface heat flux will be,

A. Twice the original surface heat flux

B. 1.3 time the original surface heat flux

C. 0.7 times the original surface heat flux

D. half the original surface heat flux

Answer: B

(C) The following figure shows rheological profiles for four different tectonic settings:

The correct sequence representing the rheological profiles (i),(ii),(iii),(iv) respectively is

A. Oceanic lithosphere, continental rift, orogenic belt, craton

B. Craton, oceanic lithosphere, continental rift, orogenic belt

C. Craton, continental rift, orogenic belt, oceanic lithosphere

D. Oceanic lithosphere, orogenic belt, continental rift, craton

Answer: D

85. (A) Consider the following 3- layer models with resistivity’s P1, P2 and P3 and thicknesses as h1 and h2.

Model 1:

Model 2:

Model 3:

Model 4:

Which of the models are equivalent?

A. Model 1 and 2

B. Model 1 and 4

C. Model 1 and 3

D. Model 2 and 3

Answer: A

(B) A4 – layer VES curve ae generated for following the geoelectric section,

 Layer Resistivity Thickness(m) 1 1.0 1.0 2 5.0 2.0 3 0.4 10.0 4 ∞ ∞

The obtained VES curve was further interpreted using auxiliary point and the obtained geoelectric section is

 Layer Resistivity Thickness(m) 1 1.0 1.0 2 6.0 1.4 3 0.56 13.7 4 ∞ ∞

Using the principle of equivalence, the percentage error in the estimation of second layer resistivity is

A. ~25%

B. ~16%

C. ~2.5%

D. ~1.6%

Answer: B

(C) Using the data in B, the percentage error in thr estimation of third layer resistivity is

A. ~25%

B. ~16%

C. ~2.5%

D. ~1.6%

Answer: C

86. A vertical loop fixed transmitter electromagnetic survey was carried out to map a possible thin vertical conductor of resistivity 1 embedded in a host rock of resistivity

(A) The frequency you recommend for this survey is

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: C

(B) For the above conductor, the phase difference between the primary and secondary magnetic fields is,

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: D

(C) Consider the following situation in the above survey:

Situation 1: The transmitter and receiver are on the same side of the conductor

Situation 2: The transmitter is on one side of the conductor and the receicer is just above the conductor

The coupling coefficients in these situations will be

A. Situation 1: negative, Situation 2: zero

B. Situation 2: positive, Situation 2: negative

C. Situation 3: zero, Situation 2: positive

D. Situation 4: Zero, Situation 2: zero

Answer: A

87. Using your knowledge of the forces that control horizontal flow, answer the following:

(A) Identify the type of wind aloft over N shown in following figure

A. Ridge wind

B. Gradient wind

C. Ekman spiral

D. Anticyclone

Answer: B

(B) With reference to the figure in (A), the pressure gradient force acts

A. Outwards and is equal in magnitude to the Coriolis force

B. Outwards and is greater in magnitude then the Coriolis force

C. Inwards and is lesser in magnitude than the Coriolis force

D. Inwards and is Greater in magnitude than the Coriolis force

Answer: D

(C) The surface wind pattern at a location in Gujarat is shown below. Which of the following statement is TRUE with reference to the wind aloft?

1. Convergence occurs

2. Divergence occurs

3. High pressure region is formed

4. There is no flow of wind

Answer: A

88. (A) During the last glacial maximum the sea level was lower by 100-120 meters. One of the following statements about the impact of lower sea level is UNTRUE:

A. The lengths of all the rivers had increased

B. The catchment area of all the rivers had increased

C. The channel slopes of all the rivers had increased

D. The transport capacities of all the rivers had increased

Answer: D

(B) Identify the correct sequence of changes in the orbital parameters on the basis of the time span of the cycle. E= eccentricity; O=obliquity; P=precession

A. O> P >E

B. E > P > O

C. P < O <E

D. O< E < P

Answer: C

(C) Two of the following statement about the last interglacial are INCORRECT:

a) IT coincided with isotope stage 5e

b) The of seawater was higher than during the LGM

c) It was cooler than the present

d) The ice cap cover was less than the present

A. a and b

B. b and c

C. c and d

D. a and d

Answer: B

89. Which one of the following statement about delta growth is incorrect?

A. Deltas continue to prograde as long as the supply of riverside sediment exceeds its removal by waves and currents

B. Delta progradation is faster in deep water or where sub marine canyon exists offshore

C. Delta progradation is most spectacular in shallow seas in the tropics

D. Reduced sediment supply from the catchment area decreases the rate of delta progradation

Answer: B

(B) The absence of typical delta at the mouth of the Amazon river is primarily due to

A. Very high tidal range

B. Lower sediment yield from upstream

C. Erosion and removal of sediments by an ocean current

D. Very strong wave action associated with tropical cyclone

Answer: C

(C) Where is the branching digital online of a delta (e.g Mississippi delta) found?

A. Wave energy is usually low and fluvial sediment supply is limited

B. Wave energy is usually low and fluvial sediment supply is abundant

C. Wave energy is usually high and fluvial sediment supply is limited

D. Wave energy is usually high and fluvial sediment supply is abundant

Answer: B

90. (A) Read the following statement about Koppen’s and Thorn Thwaite’s classification schemes and chooses the correct answer:

A. Both the schemes are empirical

B. Thorn Thwaite used many of the same alphabetic symbols that Koppen used

C. In both the schemes, vegetation is the basis for the identification of climate types

D. Thorn Thwaite’s system uses the important concept of evaporation.

Answer: B

(B) As per Koppen’s classification of climate, the following is correct:

A. Am- temperature of the coolest month and maximum rainfall in autumn

B. BSh-evapotranspiration exceeds precipitation for the year and 70% rainfall in the six winter-months

C. Cwa- coolest month above and warmest month below and minimum 10 times as much precipitation in winter months as in the driest summer months

D. Af-Temperature in the coolest month > and rainfall in the driest month> 10-r/25 but less than 6cm when r= annual rainfall in cm.

Answer: D

(C) Identify the mismatched pair:

A. Thar Desert-Bwk

B. Sahara Desert-Bwh

C. Congo Basin – Af

D. Western Ghats – Am

Answer: A

91. In the following figure, which type of channel pattern do the points A,B,C and D Correspond to?

A. A and B are meandering rivers

B. C and D are braided rivers

C. B is braided and C is meandering river

D. B is meandering and C is braided river

Answer: C

(B) Identify the correct statement:

A. Channels with fine-grained point bars are less stable than channels with coarse-grained point bars

B. Fine-grained point bars are associated with steeper channels

C. Relatively narrow channels are characterized by fine grained point bars

D. Find grained point bars are associated with low sinuosity channels

Answer: C

(C) The relationship between alluvial fan area and upstream drainage basin area (A) is expressed as (c constant and n is the slope of regression line). Which of the following statement best describes the log-log relationship between ?

A. The fan area increases proportionally with basin area

B. Large basins yield proportionally more sediment on to the fan than smaller basins

C. Large basins have higher sediment yield than smaller basins

D. As the basin size increases the sediment yield increases at a lower rate

Answer: D

92. (A) One of the following is not a characteristic feature of vadose cave systems in karst topography:

A. They develop above the water table

B. They include waterfalls and potholes

C. They may have uphill gradient

D. They have flat uneroded roofs, usually along a bedding plane

Answer: C

(B) A blind valley refers to

A. A valley which is occupied by a dry stream following river capture

B. A misfit valley

C. A valley that ends at a sinkhole

D. A raised valley downstream of a sink hole occupied by a dry river

Answer: C

(C) Limestone pavement which are distinctive nares landforms, are usually the result of one of the following processes:

A. glacio-karstic

B. fluvio-glacial

C. glacio – marine

D. fluvio-marine

Answer: A

93. (A) If the ration between water depth and water wavelength is<0.5, which one of the following statements about waves is incorrect?

A. Waves are affected by sea-bed

B. Waves tend to align with the coast

C. Wavelength increase with decreasing water depth

D. Waves becomes increasingly asymmetrical

Answer: C

(B) The offshore topography is given in the following figure.

Identify the correct type of wave refraction that will occur:

A. i

B. ii

C. iii

D. iv

Answer: B

(C) Which one of the following statements about steeper beaches is correct?

A. Steeper beaches invariably occur along costs in temperate regions

B. Steeper beaches lack berms

C. Steeper beaches are composed of well-sorted shingle.

D. Steeper beaches are composed of well- sorted sand.

Answer: C

94.

(A) Where would be the maximum velocity (mv) of the given stream for the cross section x-y in the given diagram?

Answer: A

(B) The grain size variation at(x) would be

A. Coarsening upward

B. Only sand

C. Fining upward

D. Only mud

Answer: C

(C) The place near the river bank (y) is

A. Not suitable for settlement

B. Suitable for settlement

C. Suitable for sand mining

D. Suitable for bridge

Answer: A

95. Stability in the atmosphere is determined by the temperature various higher temperature lapse rate (), dry, adiabatic lapse rate are various measures to quantity the change in atmospheric temperature with height. Based on your knowledge of these lapse rates, answer the following:

(A) Which of the following conditions enhance atmospheric stability?

A. Radiative cooling from cloud tops

B. Heating of an air mass from below as it passes over a warm surface

C. Orographic lifting of air

D. Radiative cooling of Earth’s surface after sunset

Answer: D

(B) With respect to displacement of au unsaturated air parcel, which of the following statements is correct?

A. The atmosphere is stable if the potential temperature increases with increasing altitude is correct?

B. If , the atmosphere is unstable

C. If , the air parcel when displaced vertically from its original position ‘O’ will sink back to ‘O’

D. Upward acceleration of the air parcel is inversely from its original position ‘O’ will sink back to ‘O’.

Answer: B

(C). If the acceleration due to gravity doubles, how do change?

1. remains unchanged

2. remains unchanged, doubles

3. Both double

4. Both remain unchanged

Answer: C

96. Base on your knowledge of thunderstorm electrification, answer the following:

(A) In the figure below, identify the main charging zone

A. Zone A

B. Zone B

C. Zone C

D. Zone D

Answer: A

(B) How does the rate of charge generation in a thunderstorm change, if the electric charge separated per collision (between ice crystal and rimers) doubles? Assume all other conditions remain unchanged.

A. Decreases by 50%

B. Increases by 50%

C. Remains unchanged

D. Increases by 100%

Answer: D

(C) Above an altitude of few tens of kilometers from the Earth’s surface, there exists a of strong electric field called the ‘electrosphere’. There is a downward-directed fair weather electric field from the electrosphere. This fact implies that the

A. Electrosphere carries a net negative charge

B. Earth’s surface carries a net positive charge

C. Electrosphere carries a net positive charge and the Earth’s surface carries a net negative charge

D. Atmosphere is a poor conductor of electric change

Answer: C

97. (A) Assuming the aerosol particles are distributed as per junge distribution in the atmosphere, the ratio of number of particles of size is

A. 729

B. 243

C. 81

D. 27

Answer: C

(B) In the following sketch, the cloud heights, updraft velocities at the base, horizontal wind speeds are shown, The cloud base temperature and humidity are same for all clouds. Which cloud will have condensation droplet particles based on langrangian time concept?

Answer: D

(C) In a highly polluted boundary layer with aerosols, warm clouds have bases at four different altitudes as given below. Cloud with base at which of the altitudes below has the largest number of cloud droplets?

A. 950 hPa

B. 970 hPa

C. 850 hPa

D. 700 hPa

Answer: A

98. (A) Two identical balls having the same radius ‘r’ are placed at a distance ‘d’ apart on a frictionless horizontal plane at . Assuming that the balls are propelled directly at each other, what must the deflection due to Coriolis be if the balls just miss each other?

A. Equal to the radius of the ball ‘r’

B. Equal to the diameter of the ball ‘2r’

C. The balls will never miss hitting each other

D. Equals to the initial distance ‘d’ between the balls

Answer: A

(B) Coriolis parameter has a physical significance because

A. It determines the sense of circulation when water drains out from a bath tub

B. It appears in the Rossby number expression

C. It is the planetary vorticity

D. It is a measure of the Earth’s rotation

Answer: C

(C) Air flow around a tornadic low pressure in the Northern hemisphere has

A. No rotation whatsoever

B. Only cyclonic circulation

C. Only anti-cyclonic circulation

D. Can be either cyclonic or anti-cyclonic circulation

Answer: D

99. (A) Lax theorem states that for a well- posed initial value problem, the condition for a finite-difference scheme to converge to true solution is

A. The finite difference scheme be consistent

B. The finite difference scheme be stable

C. There can be no convergence to the true solution, but only to an approximate solution

D. The finite difference scheme needs to be both consistent and stable

Answer: D

(B) The semi implicit scheme is very popular as compared to explicit and implicit method since, unlike explicit and implicit and implicit schemes it

A. Is unconditionally stable, has no constraint on time step and involves no matrix inversion

B. Involves matrix inversion

C. Is unconditionally stable

D. Has no constraint on time step

Answer: A

(C) The number of iterations to achieve convergence is higher for the sequential relaxation method as compared to the simultaneous relaxation method, while the number of iterations to achieve convergence is lower for the successive over relaxation method as compared to the sequential relaxation method.

A. The first part of the above statement is wrong while the second part is correct

B. The first part of the above statement is correct while the second part is wrong

C. Both part of the above statement are wrong

D. Both part of the above statement are correct

Answer: A

100. (A) The observed surface winds in different latitudinal belts over the Earth have both easterlies and westerlies

A. Because of Hadley call

B. Because of turbulent eddies

C. Because of east-west Walker circulation

D. Because the net transport of angular momentum to and from the atmosphere over the entire Earth will not vanish otherwise

Answer: D

(B) Typically the east-west components of horizontal winds have higher magnitudes than their North-South components primarily

A. Because of thermal winds

B. Because the Earth rotates west to east about its axis once in 24 hours

C. Because of east-west Walker circulation

D. Because of Hadley circulation

Answer: B

(C) Typically vertical velocity in the atmosphere has a lower magnitude compared to the horizontal wind magnitude since the atmosphere is

A. A stratified fluid

B. Under Hydrostatic equilibrium

C. A thin fluid with vertical length scales much smaller than horizontal length scales

D. A homogeneous fluid

Answer: C

101. (A) Unlink tropical cyclones, the monsoon depression that form over india do not weaken while experiencing landfall since

A. The surface temperature over the land is same as that of the ocean

B. The monsoon depression forms in an environment where the vertical shear of horizontal wind is very high

C. There are no changes in frictional forces associated with the monsoon depression before and after experiencing landfall

D. The atmospheric condition over land during this period is rich in moisture and similar to the atmospheric condition over the sea

Answer: D

(B) Monsoon depressions are warm-core systems at low levels and cold-core systems at higher levels. pick the correct option:

A. The first part of the statement is correct and second part of the statement is wrong

B. The first part of the statement is wrong and the second part of the statement is correct

C. Both statements are true

D. Both statements are false

Answer: D

(C) Within the radius of tangential equatorial wind associated with a tropical cyclone in the northern hemisphere

A. Shear vorticity term contributes to cyclonic vorticity, while curvature vorticity term contributes to anti-cyclonic vorticity

B. Shear vorticity term contributes to anti-cyclonic vorticity, while curvature vorticity term contributes to cyclonic vorticity

C. Both shear and curvature vorticity terms contribute to cyclonic vorticity

D. Both shear and curvature vorticity terms contribute to anti-cyclonic vorticity

Answer: C

102. (A) Meteorological satellites are

A. Only geostationary

B. Only Polar orbiting

C. Only low latitude orbiting

D. Any the above three types

Answer: D

(B) In satellite imageries deep convective clods are identified by

A. Low albedo, low OLR (Outgoing Long wave Radiation)

B. High albedo, low OLR

C. High albedo, high OLR

D. Low albedo, high OLR

Answer: B

(C) TRMM (Tropical Rainfall Measurement Mission) Satellite does not measure

A. Cloud reflectivity

B. SST

C. Aerosol optical depth

D. Integrated water vapour

Answer: C

103. (A) The salinity(s) of the North Atlantic surface waters is higher(37) than North pacific surface waters(35). For north pacific surface waters the ratio of concentration and salinity is x:1. Then the concentration for the North Atlantic waters is:

A. 35 x

B. 26 x

C. 37 x

D. x

Answer: C

(B) If the generalized concentrations of scavenged, recycled and major elements are A,B and C, respectively, then

A. A, B and C have higher values at the surface than that at 1000 m

B. A, B and C are equal at the surface and at the depth of 1000 m

C. A is less and C is more at the surface than at 1000 m but B is the same at both

D. A is less and B is more at 1000 m than at the surface but C is the same at both

Answer: D

(C) If are the residence times of scavenged, recycled and major elements in the ocean respectively, then:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: B

104. (A) Due to increasing atmospheric carbon dioxide dissolution, the oceans will become

A. Acidic

B. Less basic, but not acidic

C. Basic

D. Less acidic, but not basic

Answer: B

(B) How will increasing atmospheric partial pressure of influence the following parameters of the ocean carbonate system?

calcite saturation(E) and DIC (F) (up and down arrows indicate increase and decrease, respectively)

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: A

(C) In response to atmospheric forcing in the marine environment and global warming, what consequences may happen to global coral communities?

A. Calcification dissolution squeeze by few degree latitude

B. Calcification dissolution expand by few degree latitude

C. Calcification dissolution squeeze by few degree latitude

D. Calcification dissolution expand by few degree latitude

Answer: B

105. (A) In the latitudinal distribution of surface salinity(S), surface temperature (T), surface density , Evaporation-Precipitation (E-P) and surface mixed layer depth(D), which of the following options is correct?

Max = maximum

Min = minimum

A. Equator:

B. Equator:

C. Equator:

D. Equator:

Answer: B

(B) The following figures present the vertical profiles of temperature salinity, light pressure and nutrients in the low latitudes. which of the following correctly defines these parameters?

A. A: Temp, B: Salinity, C: Light, D: pressure, E: Nutrients

B. C: Temp, A: Salinity, B: Light, E: pressure, D: Nutrients

C. D: Temp, C: Salinity, A: Light, E: pressure, B: Nutrients

D. D: Temp, A: Salinity, C: Light, B: pressure, E: Nutrients

Answer: C

(C) In clear oceanic waters, among the wavelengths of photosynthetically active radiation the minimum extinction coefficient is observed for

A. Blue light

B. Red light

C. Green Light

D. Yellow light

Answer: A

106. (A) Water exchange is maximum between the

A. Atlantic and Pacific Oceans

B. Arctic Ocean and Atlantic Oceans

C. Arctic ocean and Pacific Oceans

D. Indian and Pacific Oceans

Answer: C

(B) Sea ice which stays in one position for a long time is called fast-ice. This is mostly formed in the

A. Southern ocean between

B. Middle of the Arctic Ocean

C. Arctic where water depth is not more than 20 m

D. Hudson Bay

Answer: C

(C) The bottom-most water mass in the India, pacific and Atlantic Oceans is the

A. North Atlantic Deep

B. Red Sea water

C. South Atlantic Deep Water

D. Antarctic Bottom Water

Answer: D

107. (A) The fossil records of benthic foraminifera are very useful in deciphering past ocean bottom environments. The assemblage with predominance of elongated taxa having informal habitat suggests:

A. Oxygen-poor condition

B. Oxygen-rich condition

C. High salinity condition

D. Low salinity condition

Answer: A

(B) The record of abundance ratio of benthic foraminifera to planktic foraminifera in marginal sequences can be used in the estimation of

A. Paleo –temperature at seafloor

B. Paleo- salinity at seafloor

C. Paleo-productivity at seafloor

D. Paleo-bathymetry

Answer: D

(C) The value of benthic to planktic foraminifera abundance ratio generally

A. Increases from shelf to the slop

B. Decreases from shelf to the slope

C. Increases latitudinal from North to South

D. Decreases latitudinally from North to South

Answer: B

108. (A) In the marine climatic record of the late Quaternary, higher sea level were normally associated with

A. Higher atmospheric ozone

B. Higher atmospheric carbon dioxide

C. Lower atmospheric carbon dioxide

D. Lower atmospheric ozone

Answer: B

(B) Salinity of the oceans was the highest

A. 5000 years ago

B. 10,000 years ago

C. 21000 years ago

D. 17,000 years ago

Answer: C

(C) Late Quaternary climate change is believed to have been caused by

A. Anthropogenic greenhouse gases

B. Methane emission from marine clathrates

C. Variation in the Sun-Earth orbital geometry

D. Change in the solar output

Answer: C

109. (A) Where is biological productivity likely to be the highest?

A. Warm-core eddies

B. Cold core eddies

C. Sub-tropical gyres

D. Zone of convergence

Answer: B

(B) Which one of the following is INCORRECT?

A. Productivity in the Northern Arabian Sea is high during winter due to convective mixing

B. Productivity is high on Peru coast during El-Nino years

C. Subsurface oxygen minima are not found in the Bay of Bengal

D. During the southwest monsoon upwelling takes place along the Kerala Coast

Answer: B

(C) The Arabian Sea during the spring inter monsoon is characterized by

A. Deep mixed layer (>100 m)

B. Nitrate concentration in the surface water greater than 2

C. Stratified upper layer due to abundant freshwater input

D. favorable conditions for Trichodesmium bloom

Answer: D

110. (A) Which of the following basins is NOT a high nutrient low chlorophyll (HNLC) Ozone?

A. Equatorial Pacific Ocean

B. Bay of Bengal

C. Southern Ocean

D. Sub-Arctic North Pacific

Answer: B

(B) Which of the following does NOT contribute towards development/maintenance of HNLC condition?

A. High Grazing

B. Very deep mixed layer

C. Non-availability of nitrate

D. non-availability of dissolved iron

Answer: C

(C) Which of the following organisms are the most abundant in the Southern Ocean?

A. Trichodesmium

B. Cocolithophoroids

C. Noctiluca

D. Diatorns

Answer: D