CSIR Earth Sciences Solved December 2015
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Q-1. “The clue is hidden in this statement”, read the note handed to Sherlock by Moriarty, who hid the stolen treasure in one of the ten pillars. Which pillar is it?
Q-2. suppose three meeting of a group of professors were arranged in Mumbai, Delhi and Chennai, Each professor of the group attended exactly two meetings. 21 professors attended exactly two meetings. 21 professors attended Mumbai meeting,27 attended Delhi meeting and 30 attended Chennai meeting. How many of them attended both the Chennai and Delhi meetings?
4. Cannot be found from the above information
Q-3. The probability that a ticketless traveler is caught a trip is 0.1. if the traveler makes 4 trips, the probability that he/she will be caught during at least one of the trips is;
The minimum number of straight lines requires to connect the nine points above without lifting the pen or retracing is
Q-5. Let A, B be the ends of the longest diagonal of the unit cube. The length of the shortest path from A to B along the surface is
Q-6. How many digits are there in when it is expressed in the decimal form?
Q-7. A circle drawn in the x-y coordinate plane passes through the origin and has chords of lengths 8 units and 7 units on the x and y axes, respectively. The coordinates of its centre are
Answer: 3 or 4
Q-8. There is an inner circle and an outer circle around a square. What is the ratio of the area of the outer circle to that of the inner circle?
Q-9. The base diameter of a glass is 20% smaller than the diameter at the rim. The glass is filled to half the height. The ratio of empty to filled volume of the glass is
Q-10. The wheel barrow with unit spacing between its wheels is pushed along a semi-circular path of mean radius 10. The difference between distances covered by the inner and outer wheels is
Q-11. Write d=1 degree, r=1 radian and g=1 grad. Then which of the following is true? (100 grad =a right angle)
Q-12. A vendor sells articles having a cost price of Rs.100 each. He sells these article at a premium price, which is half of the premium price, during first eight months, and at a sale price, which is half of the premium price, during next four months. He makes a net profit of 20% at the end of the year. Assuming that equal numbers of articles are sold each month, what is the premium price of the article?
Q-13. The statement: “The father of my son is the only child of your parents”
1. Can never be true
2. Is true in only one type of relation
3. Can be true for more than one type of relations
4. Can be true only in a polygamous family
Q-14. One is required to tile a plane with congruent regular polygons. With which of the following polygons is this possible?
Q-15. Three circle of equal diameters are placed such that their centres make an equilateral triangle as in the figure
Within each circle, 50 points are randomly scattered. The frequency distribution of distances between all possible pairs of points will look as
Q-16. Most Indian tropical fruit trees produce fruits in April-May. The best possible explanation for this is
1. Optimum water availability for fruit production.
2. The heat allows quicker ripening of fruit.
3. Animals have no other source of food in summer.
4. The impending monsoon provides optimum conditions for propagation.
Q-17. The number of diagonals of a convex deodecagon (12-gon) is
Q-18. Three boxes are colored red, blue and green and so are three balls. In how many ways can one put the balls one in each box such that no ball goes into the box of its own colour?
1. GENT STUDENTS CAUSE LITTLE HEART BURNS
2. STUDENT ARE INTELLIGENT BUT PROBLEM IS NOT SOLVABLE
3. THIS PROBLEM IS UNSOLVABLE BY ANY STUDENT
4. THIS PROBLEM IS SOLVABLE BY INTELLIGENT STUDENTS
20. The Missing number is
Q-21. A planet is identical to the Earth in all respects except that its atmospheric composition is purely oxygen (instead of Earth’s 80:20 mixture of nitrogen and oxygen). The scale height of such an atmosphere relative to that of the Earth is expected to be
Q-22. In order to have the same value of the surface acceleration due to gravity as on Earth, a planet twice its radius must have a mean relative density of
Q-23. A start which is burning/fusing mostly Hydrogen is called
1. Red giant
2. Main sequence
3. White dwarf
4. Super giant
Q-24. The estimated age of the universe is
1. 4.56 billion years
2. 13.5 billion years
3. 10.1 billion years
4. 25.7 billion years
Q-25. At high pressures and temperatures rocks undergo permanent ductile deformation under tectonic stresses. Such permanent strains can develop when the stress in the rocks reaches its
1. yield strength
2. tensile strength
3. ultimate strength
4. failure stress
Q-26. What is the most common anion in river water?
Q-27. Ni has the most tightly bound nucleus because it
1. has the highest binding energy
2. has the highest binding energy per nucleon
3. does not undergo radioactive decay
4. has a long half life
Q-28. Which of the following graphs correctly depicts the decay of a radioactive parent isotope and the growth of its radiogenic daughter?
Q-29. Which of the following isotope ratios get significantly fractionated during evaporation of sea water?
Q-30. The relationship between the period of revolution of the planets around the Sun and their distance from the Sun is given by
1. Bede’s Law
2. Kepler’s Law
3. Newton’s Law
4. Hubble’s Law
Q-31.Which one of the listed minerals is formed during weathering of rocks on the surface of the Earth?
Q-32. Two minerals, A and B, which do not show solution behaviour(at atomic scales) have melting temperatures’ and respectively, at one atmospheric pressure. If they are physically mixed, the temperature of melting of the mixture will be around
Q-33. Which of the following rocks makes most of the upper mantle of the Earth?
Q-34. Which of the following planets has a composition very different from that of the other three?
Q-35. Which of the following rocks is not expected to occur on the moon?
Q-36. In the Himalayan Mountain Belt, rocks are deformed. Most common deformational structures observed in this region are
1. Normal faults and tensional fractures
2. Folds and reverse faults
3. Bending folds and strike-slip faults
4. Vertical fractures and extensional folds
Q-37. is crystallizing from a magma containing Which of the following diagrams correctly displays the direction (arrow) of change in the residual melt composition?
38. Some minerals form solid solutions between different chemical components. This is because solid solutions, relative to mechanical mixture of the components, have
1. Higher free energy
2. Lower free energy
3. Higher covalence of bonding
4. Lower covalence of bonding
39. Which of the following sets represents mechanical layering of the earth from the surface to the centre?
1. SIAL, SIMA, Mantle, Core
2. Crust, Mantle, Core
3. Lithosphere, Asthenosphere, Lower Mantle, Outer Core, Inner Core
4. Continental Crust, Oceanic Crust, Mantle, Core
40. The biosphere is to a large extent protected from cosmic ray bombardment from outer space. This is due to the presence of
1. Ozone layer in the atmosphere
2. Greenhouse gases
3. Moisture of the atmosphere
4. Earth’s magnetic field
41. Which of the following mass extinction events in geological history is associated with the conspicuous iridium anomaly?
42. Which of the following countries is situated on a divergent plate boundary?
43. Which of the following represents the oldest record of metazoan soft bodied animals?
4. Ediacaran fauna
44.Which one of the following represents the correct ascending order of appearance in geological history of the Earth?
1. Fishes, amphibians, reptiles, mammals
2. Amphibians, reptiles, mammals, fishes
3. Fishes, amphibians, mammals, reptiles
4. Reptiles, mammals, amphibians, fishes
45. The rate of change of sea level was maximum during
46. If a continental crust with an initial length of is stretched to a length then the stretching factor is
47. On a rotating spheroidal Earth, its gravity field increases from the equator to the poles. On a non-rotating spheroidal Earth, the gravity field
1. Remains constant on the Earth’s surface
2. Decreases from the equator to the poles
3. Increases from the equator to the poles
4. Decreases up to a latitude of then increases towards the poles
48. An elevated land mass attaining isotactic compensation
1. Is always uplifted
2. Always undergoes subsidence
3. Is uplifted in the case of over compensation and under goes subsidence otherwise
4. Undergoes subsidence in the case of over compensation and is uplifted otherwise
49. If the Earth were to have twice its present radius, without any change in its average magnetization, the magnetic field at any latitude would be
1. The same as its present value
2. Twice its present value
3. Four times its present value
4. Eight times its present values
50. Two rock masses E and P of identical chemical compositions and physical properties simultaneously acquired thermoremanent magnetism (TRM) at the magnetic equator and pole, respectively. The TRM of P is then.
1. Equal to that of E, both in direction and in magnitude
2. Equal to that of E in magnitude, but normal to it in direction
3. Twice the magnitude of E, and normal to it in direction
4. Twice the magnitude of E, but parallel to it in direction
51. Tsunamis are most likely to be generated when Richter scale magnitudes of earthquakes are
1. > 8 under oceans
2. > 8 under continents
3. > 8 either under oceans or continents
4. < 8 either under oceans or continents
52. Compared to magnetite, hematite is
1. More magnetic and richer in iron.
2. More magnetic, but has a lower iron content.
3. Less magnetic and has a lower iron content.
4. Less magnetic, but has a higher iron content.
53. The magnitude of an earthquake is determined from
1. The epicentral distance and focal depth
2. Arrival times of seismic waves at the observatories
3. Magnitude of destruction to life and property
4. Amplitude of horizontal ground motion
54.Crustal thickness, either under continents or oceans, can be determined by
1. Only reflection profiling
2. Only refraction profiling
3. Neither reflection nor refraction profiling
4. Both reflection and refraction profiling
55. Two planets A and B of masses M and 4Morbit around their central star at distances d and 4d respectively. Compared to A, the planet B orbits around the star
1. Twice slower.
2. Four times slower.
3. Eight times slower.
4. Sixteen times slower.
56. Ekman transport occurs in the
1. Upper ocean.
2. Meso-pelagic layer.
3. Bathy-pelagic layer.
4. Ocean bottom.
57. Surface salinity of the equatorial ocean is low because of
1. Advection of low salinity water from the tropical region.
2. Advection of low salinity water from the polar region.
3. Excess precipitation associated with intense atmospheric convection.
4. Excess precipitation associated with frequent cyclones.
58. During the process of evaporation, ocean experiences
1. Sensible heat loss
2. Latent heat loss
3. Sensible heat gain
4. Latent heat gain
59. Pycnocline indicates the vertical distribution of
60. Which of the following explains best the oceanic conveyor belt?
1. Zonal transport of salinity across the global ocean
2. Meridional transport of salinity across the global ocean
3. Zonal transport of heat across the global ocean
4. Meridional transport of heat across the global ocean.
61. With increasing amount of anthropogenic aerosols in the atmosphere, which one of the following statements is definitely correct?
1. Less cloud forms in the atmosphere
2. Atmosphere becomes warmer
3. More radiation is reflected back to space
4. Incoming solar radiation at the surface decreases
62. The average June-September rainfall in India is more
1. to the South of the monsoon trough
2. to the North of the monsoon trough
3. to the West of the monsoon trough
4. over the axis of the monsoon tough
63. When averaged over the entire globe, decreasing order of surface fluxes is
1. Latent heat, sensible heat, net long wave
2. Sensible heat, latent heat, net long wave
3. Net long wave, latent heat, sensible heat
4. Latent heat, net long wave, sensible heat
64. In a neutrally stable atmosphere, the lapse rate is
1. More than dry adiabatic
2. Between dry and moist adiabatic
4. Equal to dry adiabatic
65. The amount of dissolved in seawater is constant over time, whereas that of dissolved is not. This is because
1. Biological uptake of is negligible
2. Rivers bring to the ocean but not
3. is added to the ocean by basaltic crust
4. Sea water does not dissolve
66. A river channel widens downstream because the
1. Sediment load decreases
2. Gradient decreases and discharge increases
3. Lateral eroding capacity of the river increases and sediment load decreases
4. Competence of the river increases
67. In comparison with normal river flow, debris flows can easily carry large boulders because of higher
1. Velocity of flow
2. Volume of flow
3. Turbulence of flow
4. Viscosity of flow
68. If there is no change in the mean sea level, the submerged coast will
1. Remain unchanged
2. Retreat by erosion
3. Prograde by deposition
4. Retreat as well as prograde
69. During a glacial stage, the average salinity of the ocean
1. Increases relative to the interglacial stage
2. Decreases relative to the interglacial stage
3. Does not change from that in the interglacial stage
4. Initially decreases then increases
70. Which of the following oceans/seas is decreasing in its total area for the past few million years?
1. Atlantic Ocean
2. Pacific Ocean
3. Red Sea
4. Indian Ocean
71. The correct sequence that matches the following is
Sediment gravity flow
Grain support Mechanism
a. Turbidity current
p. Matrix strength
b. Debris flow
q. Fluid turbulence
c. Liquefied flow
r. Dispersive pressure
d. Grain flow
s. Escaping pore fluid
1. a-r, b-q, c-p, d-s
2. a-p, b-r, c-s, d-q
3. a-q, b-p, c-s, d-r
4. a-q, b-r, c-p, d-s
72. A Mesozoic stratigraphic sequence is characterized by the following lithounits from the bottom to the top:
Which one of the following is the probable depositional environment for the above sequence?
1. Glacial – lacustrine - eolian
2. Glacial – fluvial - eolian
3. Fluvial – tidal – shore face
4. Fluvial – lacustrine – tidal
Diagrams A, B, C and D illustrate principal kinds of biozones. The correct sequence is:
1. A: Interval biozones, B: Concurrent-range biozones, C: Assemblage biozones, D: Taxon-range biozones.
2. A: Taxon-range biozones, B: Assemblage biozones, C: Concurrent-range biozones, D: Interval biozones
3. A: Taxon-range biozones, B: Concurrent- range biozones, C: Interval biozones, D: Assemblage biozones
4. A: Concurrent-range biozones, B: Interval biozones, C: Assemblage biozones, D: Taxon range biozones
74. Match the metamorphic facies in column I with the mineral assemblage in column II
A. Green schist
P. glaucophane + lawsonites + albite
B. Blue schist
Q. Hornblende + plagioclase
R. chlorite + albite + epidote +
S. Orthopyroxene + clinopyroxene + plagioclase
1. A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S
2. A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
3. A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q
4. A-Q, B-S, C-R, D-P
75. The lowest temperature at which partial melting occurs in a rock system is a function of:
2. Oxygen fugacity
3. Amount of water
4. Bulk composition of the rock
76. Choose the correct option based on the following two statement
A. ration in co-existing sulfide minerals in equilibrium with a common sulfide reservoir can be used as a geothermometer.
B. The Fractionation factor of in coexisting phases depends on pressure.
1.Both A and B are incorrect
2. A is correct but B is incorrect
3. A is incorrect but B is correct
4. Both A and B are correct
77. Each of the following two figures shows a pair of overlapping strike-slip faults with sense of movement.
Predict the nature of structures in the overlapping zones of each pair of faults.
1. (1) Graben (2) Graben
2. (1) Ridge (2) Ridge
3. (1) Graben (2) Ridge
4. (1) Ridge (2) Graben
78. Following figure represents an interference structure between two fold sets,
Which two of the following statements are correct?
A. Both hinge lines are parallel
B. Both folds are planar.
C. folds are non-planar but folds are planar
D. Bothand fold are non-cylindrical
1. A and B
2. C and D
3. A and C
4. B and C
79. Which one of the following four options is the correct match of the items under column A with those in B?
(i) Fluvio-glacial Neogene rocks
(a) Intertrappean beds
(ii) PrecambrianCambrian boundary
(b) Himalayan Foreland basin
(iii) PermianTriassic boundary
(c) Krol basin
(iv) K-T boundary
(d) Tethyan basin
80. Points a, b and c represent three different states of stress on the failure envelope shown in the following diagram. Identify the correct type of fracturing at the points a, b, and c.
1. a– Extensional fracture, b– Hybrid fracture, c– Shear fracture.
2. a– Hybrid fracture, b– Shear fracture, c–Extensional fracture
3. a– Shear fracture, b– Extensional fracture, c– Hybrid fracture
4. a– Hybrid fracture, b– Extensional fracture, c– Shear fracture
81. Porphyry-type Cu-deposits are associated with
1. Mid-oceanic ridge setting.
2. Intra-cratonic rift setting.
3. Continent-ocean subduction setting.
4. Ocean-ocean subduction setting.
82. Banded Iron Formations occur predominantly in the greenstone belts of the Dharwar Craton, such as Bababudan. Based on this, the correct inference is:
1. Proliferation of blue green algae occurred at around 2400 Ma ago.
2. Proliferation of blue green algae occurred at around 2700 Ma ago.
3. Continental weathering started 3300 Ma ago.
4. Continental weathering started 2700 Ma ago.
83. Mississippi valley type deposit is
1. A syngenetic Pb-Zn ore
2. An epigenetic pb-Zn ore
3. A sedimentary exhalative pb-Zn ore
4. An igneous Ni-Cu ore
84. The correct sequence of sedimentary structure in the order of decreasing flow energy is:
1. Gutter cast, Flute cast, parting lineation channel fill, cross-stratification
2. Flute cast, channel fill, gutter cast, cross-stratification, parting lineation.
3. Cross-stratification, parting lineation, flute cast, gutter cast, channel fill.
4. Channel fill, gutter cast, flute cast, parting lineation, cross-stratification.
85. Which one of the following most completely explains the breakdown process of biotite during initial weathering?
1. Oxidation of octahedral and release of interlayer K
2. Oxidation of octahedral
3. Release of tetrahedral Si
4. Release of interlayer K
86. Kimber lite magma originates from mantle at depths exceeding 100 km and emplaced through a thick continental crust without significant crustal assimilation. The reason is:
1. High pressure of melting and show emplacement.
2. Melting temperature of crustal rocks is greater than Kimber lite magma
3. Kimber lite magma is highly viscous
4. High volatile content and rapid magma emplacement
87. A seismic observatory closest to the epicenter of an earthquake recorded the travel times of phases of the earthquake as 9.0, 15.5 and 16.5 minutes respectively. The travel time of the phase would be
1. 17.5 minutes
2. 23.0 minutes
3. 24.5 minutes
4. 32.0 minutes
88. Which of the following is a valid combination of velocities of P and S waves, respectively in the Earth’s lower mantle?
1. 10.0 km/s, 5.0 km/s
2. 11.0 km/s 6.0 km/s
3. 12.0 km/s, 7.0 km/s
4. 13.0 km/s, 8.0 km/s
89. Consider a layered Earth model with different seismic velocities in each layer as show in the figure
The energy of the seismic wave emerging an angle from the shot point, when incident on the interface A is
1. Totally reflected back
2. Partly refracted into the lower medium and partly reflected
3. Totally refracted along the interface
4. Partly refracted along the interface and partly reflected
90. In a refraction survey, the velocities inferred for the upper and the lower layers are 3000m/s 5000m/s respectively. If the cross over distance is 4000m, the depth the depth of the refractor is
91. The gravity anomaly at a point P distant 1.0 km from the position of the maximum anomaly, along a profile across a horizontal circular cylinder, is twice the anomaly at a point 1.0 km farther away from P. The depth of the cylinder is
92. The positions of the maximum anomaly and the minimum anomaly of 183 gamma and-13 gamma respectively are located at the distance coordinates 673m and 1073m respectively along a magnetic profile across a two dimensional sheet-like body. The anomaly of value 170gamma occurs at the distance coordinate 700m. The depth of the sheet is
1. 400 m
2. 283 m
3. 141 m
4. 100 m
93. A spherical body of 1.0 km radius buried at a depth of 2.0 km produces gravity and magnetic anomalies respectively at a horizontal distance of 2.0 km from the position of the centre of the sphere. Another spherical body of identical physical properties and of radius 1.0 mile and depth 2.0 miles produces gravity and mahnetic anomalies respectively at a horizontal distanve of 2.0 miles from the position of its centre. Then
94. Two sedimentary layers of infinite horizontal extension sit one over the other. The layer parameters are
Layer 1: depth to top = 2000 m; thickness = 1000 m; density contrast
Layer 2: depth to top = 3000m; thickness = 1000m; density contrast = .
The total gravity anomaly produced by these two layers on the surface is
1. 84 mGal
2. 42 mGal
3. 0 mGal
4. 21 mGal
95. A 120 million year old rock situated close to the equator shows a remanent magnetic dip of . the approximate drift rate of the land mass is
96. If the heat production per unit mass for basalt is the surface heat flow for an oceanic crust of thick-ness 6 km and density is
97. A tsunami occurs 1000 km away from the shore in an ocean water depth of 6.25 km. The tsunami reaches the shore in about.
1. 1 hr
3. 4 hr
98. A magntotelluric survey over a layered structure calculates the apparent resisti – vity as If the amplitude of the horizontal electric field is doubled, then the apparent resistivity will be
2. Increased three times
3. Increased four times
4. Reduced to half
99. Compared to an electromagnetic wave of frequency 1.2 MHz travelling in a medium of resistivity 100 ohm-m, the skin depth of a wave of travelling in a medium of resistivity is.
1. Decreased by a factor of 2
2. Increased by a factor of 2
4. Decreased by a factor of 4
100. The following table shows a series of measurements made with Wenner configuration over a layered Earth.
Which type of curve do the data represent?
1. KH type
2. KA type
3. AQ type
4. QK type
101. The total energy of the wavelet is
102. You are required to solve for the root of the equation in the limits (0 and 1) by the method of false position. The inference you obtain at the end of the iteration is
1. The root lies between 0 and 0.5
2. The root lies between 0.5 and 1.0
3. The root lies between 0 and 0.33
4. The root lies between 0.33 and 1.0
a. River sediment
P. Well sorted
b. Glacial sediment
Q. Very well sorted
c. Eolian sediment
R. Poorly sorted
d. Coastal sediment
S. Very poorly sorted
The above table lists sorting (B) and skewness (C) in different environments (A). The correct environment-specific sediment characters are:
1. aPX, b RY, cQY, dSY
2. a RX, bSX, cQX, dPY
3. aSX, bRX, cPX, dQY
4. aSY, bRX, cPY,dQX
104. The effects of calcrete layer are:
A. Protects underlying weathered material.
B. Prevents infiltration of rainwater to underlying layers
C. Helps in soil formation beneath the calcrete layer.
D. Accelerates chemical weathering beneath the calcrete layer.
105. If the Earth is rotated from east to west instead of west to east, which one of the following is likely to change?
1. Distribution of high and low pressure belts.
2. Magnitude of Coriolis force.
3. Direction of Coriolis deflection.
4. Seasonal migration of ITCZ
106. If the fresh water discharges from Himalayan and Peninsular rivers are drastically reduced, which of the following is unlikely to happen in the Bay of Bengal?
1. Increase in Upper ocean mixing.
2. Initiation of winter convection.
3. Deepening of mixed layer
4. Increase in cyclone activity.
P. Outflow inertia
X. Middle group bar
Q. Turbulent bed friction
Y. Levee and bar finger sand
R. Outflow buoyancy
Z. Gilbert-type foreset
Type or mixing (A), dominant process (B) and expected product (C) at the apex of a river delta with low tidal range and wave energy are listed in the above table. Identify the correct match:
1. apZ, b QX, c RY
2. a QY, b RX, c PZ
3. a PZ, b RY, c QX
4. a QZ, b PX, c RY
108. Unusually wide wave-cut platform is created if the rate of sea-level rise is
1. Slightly greater than the rock uplift.
2. Slightly lower than the rock uplift
3. Significantly lower than the rock uplift
4. Zero and rock uplift is rapid.
109. To distinguish between different rock types, a sensor with high ______ resolution is best
1. Spatial and temporal
2. Spatial and radiometric
3. Spectral and temporal
4. Spectral and radiometric
110. In a weathering profile, saprolite occurs
1. Below the layer of humus
2. Below the layer of soil
3. Above the clay-rich horizon
4. Above the unweathered rock
111. Places A and B receive rainfall of and , respectively. Rainfall is spread over 6 months at A and for 2 months at B. The erosivity will be
1. Equal at both the places
2. Higher at A than B
3. Higher at B than A
4. Erosivity is unrelated to rainfall
112. In a graded river, the stream power
1. Decreases downstream.
2. Increases downstream.
3. Remains fairly constant along the river course.
4. Increases at tributary junctions.
113. Identify the INCORRECT statement
1. Water holding capacity of sand > clay
2. Aeration in sand > clay
3. Nutrient supply capacity of sand < clay
4. Pollutant filtering capacity of sand < clay
114. Identify the passive geomorphic processes
1. Abrasion and deflation
2. Abrasion and weathering
3. Mass movement and cavitation
4. Weathering and mass movement
115. Cho ose the major soil orders occurring in the semi-arid tropics
1. Vertisols and Mollisols
2. Oxisols and Histosols
3. Alfisols and Vertisols
4. Oxisols and Vertisols
116. Identify the type of sand dunes
1. A=Longitudinal, B=Transverse, C=Star, D=Barchans
2. A=Transverse, B=Star, C= Barchans, D= Longitudinal
3. A= Star, B= Transverse, C= Barchans, D= Longitudinal
4. A= Barchans, B= Longitudinal, C= Transverse, D = Star
The correct channel patterns in the above figure are represented by
1. A= Ana branching, B=Meandering
2. C= Braided, D= Ana branching
3. C= Meandering, B= Braided
4. D= Braided, A= Meandering
Figure A, B C and D are showing mean sea level and basin floor, respectively. Arrows indicate movement of sea level (eustacy) and basin floor (tectonics); their lengths are proportional to their rates of change. The depositional sequences that will result from these situations are:
1. A= Retro gradational, B=Progradational, C= Aggradational, D=Retro gradational
2. A= Progradational, B= Retro gradational, C=Aggradational, D=Progradational
3. A= Progradational, B=Aggradational, C= Retro gradational, D=Retro gradational
4. A= Aggradational, B=Progradational, C= Retro gradational, D=Progradational
119. The largest single contributor to the planetary albedo of the Earth is:
4. Volcanic dust in the stratosphere
120. Lea a beam of radiation of wavelength be incident on a non-scattering layer of the atmosphere at Zenith angle Let the optical thickness of this layer be and its absorptivity the transmittance of this layer with respect to the incident radiation is given by:
121. The quantity of carbon in carbon reservoirs of the Earth other than the atmosphere is very high. Yet, the increase of atmospheric carbon by a few ppm/yr is of grave concern. This is because
1. Oceans are not a carbon sink
2. Carbon exists as a gaseous compound in the atmosphere
3. Once emitted to the atmosphere, there is no uptake of CO2 by other Earth system components.
4. CO2 is a reactant in several atmospheric chemical reactions.
122. The difference between virtual temperature and actual temperature for a moist air parcel is likely to be maximum over:
1. The equatorial oceans.
2. The poles.
3. The sub-tropical continental region.
4. The mid-latitude continental region.
123. The geopotential at a particular point in the atmosphere depends on:
1. The height of the point and the path through which a unit mass was taken to the point from the sea level.
2. Only the path through which a unit mass was taken to the point from the sea level.
3. The air temperature at that point.
4. Only the height of the point from the sea level.
124. Let the characteristic length scale of a flow situation in the atmosphere be ‘L’. Assuming that ‘L’ is much larger than the Rossby radius of deformation , which one of the following statements is true?
1. Both gravity and rotation effects are important
2. Both gravity and rotation effects are not important and can be neglected
3. Rotation effects are more important than gravity effects
4. Rotation effects are less important than gravity effects
125. The tropical easterly jet stream is seen during the South-west Indian monsoon season. Which one of the following statements related to the tropical easterly jet stream is false?
1. It is located over 13°N latitude
2. It is due to the reversed meridional temperature gradient
3. It is due to outflow from Tibetian High which gets deflected by Coriolis force
4. It is located over latitude
126. With reference to the retrieval of vertical humidity profiles in the atmosphere using satellite radiance measurements, which one of the following statements is true?
1. The knowledge of the associated vertical temperature profile of the atmosphere is not required
2. A constituent of the atmosphere which is uniformly mixed in the atmosphere and which has strong absorption centered over a particular wavelength is chosen for retrieval
3. A constituent of the atmosphere with wavelength independent absorption coefficient is chosen for retrieval
4. A constituent of the atmosphere which is non-uniformly mixed in the atmosphere and which has strong absorption centered over a particular wavelength is chosen for retrieval
127. It is known that the Eastern Equatorial Pacific warms during EI-Nino Southern Oscillation phenomenon. The reason for the above is that ocean Ekman transport over Eastern Equatorial Pacific is:
1. Reduced pole ward
2. Enhanced pole ward
3. Reduced equator ward
4. Enhanced equator ward
128. While it is well recognized that planet Earth is warming over the last 50 years, there are also some surface cooling components/mechanisms. Which one of the following is such a component/mechanism?
1. Water vapor-greenhouse effect feedback
2. Ice-albedo feedback
3. Presence of optically thin cirrus cloud
4. Presence of optically thick stratocumulus cloud
129. Which one of the following statements with reference to the formation of primary rainbows is false?
1. They are formed by refraction and internal reflection of sunlight in raindrops
2. Their colours from their outer to their inner circumference are red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, and violet
3. Geometric optics theory provides their description
4. Their colours from their outer to their inner circumference are violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange, and red
130. A warm cloud in the marine environment is more likely to precipitate as compared to a warm cloud in an urban city environment, due to:
1. Higher liquid water content in the marine cloud
2. Higher updraft velocity in the marine cloud
3. Air temperature inside the marine cloud is more conducive for precipitation
4. Fewer cloud condensation nuclei (CCN) in the marine cloud
131. Consider the following two cases. In the first case, an object of unit mass is thrown up from the ground over the equator to a certain height ‘h’. In the second case, the same object is dropped to ground over the equator under free-fall, from the same height ‘h’. Neglecting air resistance in both cases, which one of the following statements is true?
1. The magnitude of the Coriolis deflection in the two cases are the same
2. The direction and magnitudes of the Coriolis deflection in the two cases are the same
3. The magnitudes of the Coriolis deflection are unequal and the object is deflected to the geographical west in both the cases
4. The magnitudes of the Coriolis deflection are unequal in the two cases. Further, the deflection of the object is towards geographical west in the first case while deflection is towards the geographical east in the second case
132. Which one of the following statements related to equatorial Kelvin wave is false?
1. Vanishing of the meridional component of the velocity
2. Satisfies geostrophic relationship
3. Is equatorially trapped
4. Phase speed propogates eastward
133. The “closure problem” manifests while discussing the motion of turbulent flows in the atmosphere and oceans. The reason for this problem is due to the fact that:
1. Fluid motion is described in a Langrangian framework
2. Governing equations of motion are nonlinear
3. Governing equations are mathematical statements of the conservation of mass, momentum, and energy
4. Governing equations are a system of coupled partial differential equations
134. The buoyancy frequency is a measure of
1. Mass of the atmosphere above a level
2. Static stability of the atmosphere
3. Speed of the gravity wave locally
4. Moisture content of the air
135. Thermal inversion in the tropical ocean forms during
1. Summer when low salinity surface water is warmed.
2. Summer when high salinity surface water is warmed.
3. Winter when low salinity surface water is cooled.
4. Winter when high salinity surface water is cooled.
136. Longshore current flows
1. Perpendicular to the coast and forms by wave refraction
2. Perpendicular to the coast and forms by wave diffraction
3. Parallel to the coast and forms by wave refraction
4. Parallel to the coast and forms by wave diffraction
137. Oceanic Wyrtki jet (equatorial jet) is formed during
1. Spring and fall due to organized easterly winds
2. Spring and fall due to organized westerly winds
3. Summer due to southwesterly winds
4. Winter due to northeasterly winds
138. In the Atlantic Ocean off Spain, in a T - S diagram, in addition to surface and deep water masses a distinct water mass is seen around 1000 m depth. This is due to the inflow of
1. Mediterranean water
2. Antarctic Intermediate water
3. Gulf Stream water
4. Baltic low salinity water
139. In a productive ocean surface water pH is 8.3 and deep water pH is 7.8, What is the surface: deep H+ ion activity ratio?
140. Deepwater conservative oxygen is conceptually defined by the two equations:
Whereis the observed dissolved oxygen concentration.
What is the basis of this concept?
1. The surface water contained nitrate and phosphate in the ratio 138:9.2
2. The uptake of nitrate and phosphate by phytoplankton at surface was in the ratio 138:9.2
3. The uptake of nitrate and phosphate by plankton at surface was in the ratio 9.2:138
4. The surface water contained nitrate and phosphate is the ratio 9.2: 138.
141. Siliceous (opaline) rather than calcareous sediments are found on a major portion of the ocean floor because
1. Silicate production is higher than carbonate production at surface
2. CaCO3 dissolves with depth while silica does not.
3. Carbonate production is higher than silicate production at surface
4. Carbonates are diagnostically removed while silica is enriched
142. The behavior of metals in terms of (i) essential nutrient type, (ii) scavenging type and (iii) both nutrient type and scavenging type, and (iv) atmospheric input type respectively is best represented by
1. Fe, Pb, Al and Cd
2. Fe, Pb, Cd, and Al
3. Cd, Al, Fe and Pb
4. Al, Fe, Cd and Pb
143. Which of the following order of ocean currents is logical with respect to oceanic conveyer belt?
1. Indonesian through flow-Agulhas Current-Benguela Current-Gulf Stream
2. Benguela Current-Indonesian through flow Gulf stream-Agulhas Current
3. Gulf Stream-Indonesian through flow Bengula Current- Agulhas Current
4. Agulhas Current-Gulf-Stream-Bengula Current-Indonesian through flow
144. With regard to the upper ocean water column which of the following is true?
1. The temperature of the water gradually increases with depth till the base of the thermocline
2. The nutrient concentration decreases with depth till the base of the thermocline
3. The nutrient concentration increases with depth
4. The temperature remains constant within the thermocline
145. The Cenozoic Era has been marked by major climate changes caused by opening and closing of ocean gateways. Which one of the following is generally associated with Northern Hemisphere glaciations?
1. Opening of the Tasmanian seaway
2. Closing of the Indonesian seaway
3. Opening of the Drake Passage
4. Closing of the Central American seaway
146. With regard to Cenozoic deep sea sedimentary records, biostratigraphy is studied with the help of
1. Benthic foraminifera because of their long stratigraphic ranges
2. Planktic foraminifera and nannofossils because of their rapid evolutionary rate
3. Radiocarbon dating combined with planktic foraminifera
4. Benthic siliceous microfossils
147. Identify the major class of pollutants that would lead to the species- richness of the nematode, Nereis diversicola
148. Warming climate is known to affect the marine biota both beneficially as well as adversely. In the scenario of continuously warming ocean, the biomass of adaptable biota would be maximal in the
1. Polar regions
2. Tropical regions
3. Subtropical regions
4. Upwelling regions
149. Construction of dams across the rivers leads to depletion of land discharges that contain some of the most essential nutrients for the growth of planktonic, autotrophic community. Such obstruction of river flow is likely to affect the growth and abundance of
2. Sea grasses
150. The most representative cluster of true benthic adult life forms is
1. Sea stars, slugs, soles
2. Mackerels, mudskippers, mussels
3. Amphipods, anchovies, annelids
4. Barnacles, barracudas, bryozoans