# CSIR Earth Sciences Solved June 2015

## PART-A

Q-1. In each of the following group of words is a hidden number, based on which you should arrange them in ascending order. Pick the right answer.

A. Tinsel event

B. Man in England

C. Good height

D. Last encounter

1. A, B, C,D

2. C, D, B, A

3. A, C, D, B

4. C, D, B, A

Q-2. Let m and n be two positive integers such that Then the value of is

1. Not uniquely determined

2. 18

3. 20

4. 22

Q-3. AB is the diameter of a circle. The chord CD is perpendicular to AB intersecting it at P. If CP=2 and PB=1, the radius of the circle is

1. 1

2. 2.5

3. 2

4. 5

Q-4. What is angle x in the schematic diagram given below?

1. 60

2. 50

3. 40

4. 30

Q-5. From a group of 40 players, a cricket team of 11 players is chosen. Then, One of the eleven is chosen as the captain of the team. The total number of ways this can be done is

below means the number of ways n object can be chosen from m objects]

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q-6. Starting from a point A you fly one mile south, then one mile east, then one mile north which brings you back to point A. Point A is NOT the north pole. Which of the following MUST be true?

1. You are in the Northern Hemisphere

2. You are in the Eastern Hemisphere

3. You are in the Western Hemisphere

4. You are in the Southern Hemisphere

Q-7. A 3 m long car goes past a 4 m long truck at rest on the road. The speed of the car is 7 m/s. The time taken to go past is

1.

3.

4.

Q-8. Jar W contains 40 white marble and jar B contains 40 black marbles. Ten black marbles from B are transferred to W and mixed thoroughly. Now, ten randomly selected marbles from W are put back in jar B to make 40 marbles in each jar. The number of black marbles in W

1. Would be equal to the number of white marbles in B

2. Would be more than the number of white marbles in B

3. Would be less than the number of white marble in B

4. Cannot be determined from the information given

Q-9. Consider 3 parallel strips of 10 m width running around the Earth, parallel to the equator; at the Equator, at the Tropic of Cancer and at the Arctic Circle. The order of the areas of the strips is

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q-10. If

Then

1. T

2. A

3. L

4. K

Q-11. How many non-negative integers less than 10,000 are there such that the sum of the digits of the number is divisible by three?

1. 1112

2. 2213

3. 2223

4. 3334

Q-12. Of three persone A,B and C, one always lies while the others always speak the truth. C asked A,” Do you always speak the truth, yes or no?” He sais something that C could not hear. So, C asked B, “what did A say?” B replied, “A said No”. So, who is the liar?

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. Cannot be determined

Q-13.

Two ants, initially at diametrically opposite points A and B on a circular ring of radius R, start crawling towards each other. The speed of the one at a half of that of the one at B. the point at which they meet is at a straight line distance of

1. R from A

2.

3.

4.

Q-14.

Based on the graph, which of the following statements is NOT true?

1. Number of gold medals increased whenever total number of medals increased

2. Percentage increase in gold medals in 2010 over 2006 is more than the corresponding increase in total medals

3. Every time non-gold medals together account for more than 50% of the total medals

4. Percentage increase in gold medals in 2010 over 2006 is more than the corresponding increase in 2002 over 1998

Q-15. A pyramid shaped toy is made by tightly placing cubic blocks of . The base of the toy is a square the width of each step is 0.5 cm. How many blocks are required to make the toy?

1. 30

2. 34

3. 36

4. 40

Q-16. Information in DNA is in the form of sequence of 4 base namely A, T, G and C. The proportion of G is the same as that of C, and that of A is the same as that of T. Which of the following strands of DNA will potentially have maximum diversity (i.e, maximum information content per base)?

1. Length 1000 bases with 10% G

2. Length 2000 bases with 10% A

3. Length 2000 bases with 40% T

4. Length 1000 bases with 25% C

Q-17. Two plane mirrors facing each other are kept at to each other. A point is located on the angle bisector. The number of images of the point is

1. 6

2. 3

3. 5

4. Infinite

Q-18. I bought a shirt at 10% discount and sold it to a friend at a loss of 10%. If the friend paid me Rs. 729.00 for the shirt, what was the undiscounted price of the shirt?

1. Rs. 900

2. Rs. 800

3. Rs. 1000

4. Rs. 911.25

Q-19. A single celled spherical organism contains 70% water by volume. If it loses 10% of its water content, how much would its surface area change by approximately?

1. 3%

2. 5%

3. 6%

4. 7%

Q-20. Suppose

(1) x=4

(2) Then

(3) Therefore

(4)

(5) Then

Which is the wrong step?

1. 1 to 2

2. 2 to 3

3. 3 to 4

4. 4 to 5

## PART ‘B’

Q-21. Which one of the following milankovitch periodicities in climate is due to the precession of the Earth?

1. 41,000 years

2. 23,000 years

3. 100,000 years

4. 10,000 years

Q-22. The benthic organisms living at the deep ocean floor get oxygen due to

1. Weathering of oxide minerals at sea floor

2. Submarine volcanic eruptions

3. Sinking of Polar waters to sea floor

4. Decay of organic matter at sea floor

Q-23. Mariana trench was formed due to

1. Divergence of oceanic plates

2. Divergence of of oceanic and continental plates

3. Convergence of oceanic plates

4. Convergence of continental plates

Q-24. Which one of the following statements is true with regard to global precipitation during glacial/interglacial periods?

1. In glacial periods there was more precipitation

2. In glacial periods there was less precipitation

3. Precipitation remained the same in both the periods

4. Precipitation increased in polar areas during glacial periods

Q-25. The rate of sediment accumulation is minimum at:

1. Continental shelves

2. Continental slopes

3. Continental rises

4. Deep-ocean floor

Q-26.Which one of the following tidal patterns characterizes the West coast of India?

1. One high and one low of equal magnitudes

2. One high and one low of unequal magnitudes

3. Two high and two low of equal magnitudes

4. Two high and two low of unequal magnitudes

Q-27. In the tropical ocean, which one of the following CAN NOT increase the mixed layer thickness?

1. Winds

2. Solar heating

3.Wave height

4. Evaporation

Q-28. Tropical Easterly jet Stream is the strongest during the

1. Winter months over Northern Indian region

2. Summer months over Southern Indian region

3. Winter months over southern Indian region

4. Summer months over Northern Indian region

Q-29. El Nino Southern Oscillation (ENSO) is an

1. Oceanic process

2. Atmospheric process

3. Ocean-atmospheric process

4. Ocean-atmosphere-land process

Q-30. For a mineral M, the peak for the (110) plane appears at in its pattern, when target is used. If Fe target is used the same peak appears at If

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q-31. The Global annual mean temperature in the Cretaceous was

1. Same as that today

2. lower than that today

3. higher than that today

4. higher than that today

Q-32. Roughly 11000 years from now, when the Earth will be at perihelion, there will be

1. Summer in northern hemisphere in December

2. Summer in southern hemisphere in December

3. Winter in northern hemisphere in December

4. No Change in climate from today in both northern and southern hemispheres

Q-33. Atmosphere of planet Mars is almost entirely made up of . But the surface temperature of Mars is less than that of the Earth because:

1. does not act as a greenhouse gas in the absence of other gasses

2. Of absence of ozone

3. Of absence of volcanic activity

4. Mars has a larger orbit than that of the Earth

Q-34. Chemical composition of Earth’s core is similar to that of

1. Chondritic meteorites

2. Achondritic meteorites

3.carbonaceous Chondritic

4. Iron meteorites

Q-35. The correct match of items in the lists I and II is.

 I II A Isobar P Equal temperature B Isohyets Q Equal Age C Isotherm R Equal Volume D Isochrones S Equal pressure T Equal precipitation

Table title: Match of items in the lists I and II

Table Description: Match of items in the lists I and II

1. A-s; B-T; C-P; D-Q

2. A-T; B-S; C-Q; D-P

3. A-S; B-P; C-Q; D-R;

4. A-R; B-P; C-S; D-T;

Q-36. Which one of the following minerals in the Moh’s scale of hardness is a silicate?

1. Apatite

2. Fluorite

3. Topaz

4. Corundum

Q-37. Which one of the following is not a plate boundary?

1. Carlsberg Ridge

2. South East Indian Ridge

3. East Pacific Rise

4. Ninety East Rdge

Q-38. Which one of the following statements is NOT true?

1. P-waves are body waves

2. Love waves are body waves

3. S-waves accelerate in the mantle

4. Rayleigh waves are surface waves

Q-39. Which one of the following is situated at one of the foci of the orbit of Mars?

1. Sun

2. Venus

3. Mercury

4. Jupiter

Q-40. Which of the following statement about river channel velocity is correct?

1. Velocity is high near the channel bed

2. Average flow velocity at a cross section occurs at 0.6 depth

3. Minimum velocity is observed at the water surface in mid-stream

4. Velocity is lower over steeper gradients

Q-41. The highest features on a floodplain are

1. Point bars

2. Meander scroll

3. Back swamps

4. Natural Levees

Q-42. Which one of the following types of mass movement indicates movement masse along a structural surface, such as a bedding or foliation plane?

1. Debris Avalanche

2. Debris flow

3. Rotational slide

4. Translational slide

Q-43. Smectite is the dominant clay in areas with

1. High rainfall and good drainage

2. High rainfall and poor drainage

3. Low rainfall and good drainage

4. Low rainfall and poor drainage

Q-44. Dome-Shaped hills and corestones are commonly associated with

1. Basalt

2. Andesite

3. Granite

4. Sandstone

Q-45. Transsport limited slopes are characterized by

1. Thick cover of regolith

2. Thin cover of regolith

3. NO regolith

4. Fresh rock

Q-46. Which one of the following is NOT a common set of secondary minerals formed by weathering?

1. Hematite, Goethite, Gibbsite

2. Goethite, Gibbsite, Gypsum

3. Gibbsite, Hematite, Kaolinite

4. Kaolinite, Goethite, Gibbsite

Q-47. Which of the following sediment types has the highest permeability?

1. Mud

2. Mixture of sand and mud

3. Well sorted sand

4. Poorly sorted sand

Q-48. Higher rate of silicate weathering leads to

1. Increase in in atmosphere

2. Decrease in in atmosphere

3. Increase in in atmosphere

4. Decrease in moisture content in atmosphere

Q-49. Elevated land masses undergoing subsidence are associated with strong

1. Isostatic and Bouguer anomalies

2. Isostatic and Bouguer anomalies

3. Isostatic and Bouguer anomalies

4. Isostatic and Bouguer anomalies

Q-50. An electromagnetic wave at 100 Hz can penetrate to a depth of 100m. Then, an electromagnetic wave of 400 Hz will penetrate to a depth of

1. 2.5 m

2. 50m

3. 200m

4. 400m

Q-51. A 20 cm cube of a rock measures a resistance of 200 ohm. The resistivity of the rock is

1. 4000 ohm.m

2. 1000 ohm.m

3. 800 ohm.m

4. 40 ohm.m

Q-52. If the sun were to lose some mass, then the duration of an year on the Earth would be

1. Longer, with the length of the day being the same

2. Shorter, with the length of the day being the same

3. of the same length, the length of the day being larger

4. of the same length, the length of the day being shorter

Q-53. The magnetic field of a planet at its north pole is 2.4 Gauss. The magnetic field on its magnetic equator is

1. 4.8 Gauss

2. 2.4 Gauss

3. 1.2 Gauss

4. 0.6 Gauss

Q-54. A cubic wooden block of density 0.8 gm/cc when floats in water have an exposure of 2 cm above the water level. The side of the cube is

1. 10 cm

2. 18 cm

3. 6 cm

4. 4 cm

Q-55. The Natural Remanent Magnetization of a rock unit is found to be of the present north. The inference is that the land mass

1. Moved northwards by

2. Moved southwards by

3. Rotated westward by

4. Rotated eastward by

Q-56. The yield stress of a rook is. What would be the behavior of rock when it is loaded gradually up to and then the stress is suddenly removed?

1. The rock will change its shape by accommodating some amount of strain.

2. The rock will fail by fracturing

3. The rock will flow continuously

Q - 57. The degree of freedom at the eutectic point of a binary system is:

1. 0

2. 1

3. 2

4. 3

Q-58. The horizontal equivalent, measured between two successive strike lines on a map, for a vertical bed is:

1. Zero

2. Infinitely large

3. Moderately large

4. Variable

Q-59. The remote sensing satellite measures back radiation from the ocean surface. This back radiation is independent of the concentration of

1. Living phytoplankton

2. Suspended particles

3. Dissolved organic matter

4. Dissolved inorganic matter

Q:-60. Which one of the following is not a part of the oceanic subtropical gyre?

1. Gulf stream

2. Kuroshio

3. North equatorial current

4. Antarcation circum polar current

Q-61. The order of molar abundance in sea water is in the sequence

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q-62. The residence time of the elements ,and in seawater is in the sequence:

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q-63. The most non-conservative element in the sea is

1. Lithium

2. Uranium

3. Fluorine

4. Thorium

Q-64. Coral reef ecosystems are oases of life in the oceans, because of their ability to

1. Sequester a lot of atmospheric

2. Support a lot of biodiversity

3. Produce a lot of

4. Reduce salinity significantly

Q-65.

The given X-ray spectrum is wrong, because

1. Intensity is not a function of wavelength.

2. Positions of and should be reversed.

3. Heights of and should be reversed.

4. Both positions and heights of and

Q-66. Biogeographically, volcanic vent communities are located

1. in mid-ocean rides

2. within subduction zones

3. In the heal depths

4. around submarine hydrothermal springs.

Q-67. Unlike tropical cyclones, which generally weaken on experiencing landfall, monsoon weaken on experiencing landfall, monsoon depressions that from over the Head Bay of Bengal do not weaken on experiencing landfall for the following reason

1. Lower frictional force.

2. Humid conditions over land.

3. Lower sea surface temperature.

4. More overcast cloud condition.

Q-68. With reference to the development of convective clouds with large vertical extent, the clouds with large vertical extent, the clouds with large vertical extent, the clouds need to have

1. High liquid water content.

2. Low liquid water content.

3. Low vertical updraft velocity.

4. High vertical updraft velocity.

Q-69. The process associated with the upward displacement of a saturated air parcel in terms of its equivalent potential temperature is

4. Isothermal process

Q-70. Consider two planets A and b with radii 2r and r, respectively. Let their distances from the sun be d and 2d, respectively. Let their distance from the Sun be d and 2d, respectively. The solar constants for and are related by

1.

2.

3.

4.

## Part “C”

Q-71. If the average density of rocks in the crust is and the value of ‘g’ (acceleration due to gravity) is, then what is the value of litho static stress at a depth of in the crust?

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q-72. Following four figures show map views of transform faults. Which two of the four figures show the contact sense of relative movement?

1. A and D

2. A and C

3. B and C

4. B and D

Q-73. Following figures, 1, 2, 3 and 4 show cross-sectional views of the folded beds. Which one of these is these is an overturned limb of the fold?

Q-74. Literate from a particular region shows predominance of gibbsite, . The region is geographically in the:

1. Equatorial zone

2. Tropical zone

3. Temperate zone

4. Polar zone

Q-75.

In the given silicate structure comprising of a chain of tetrahedral, the of bridging to non-bridging oxygen atoms is:

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q-76.

Resistivity log of a hydrocarbon bearing sedimentary formation (A) revealed response as shown in (B). The spikes in the curve B are correlated with the occurrence of:

1. I-Fresh water, II- Saline water, III- Gas, IV- Oil

1. I-Gas, II- Fresh water, III- Oil, IV- Saline water

1. I-Gas, II- Oil, III- Fresh water, IV- Saline water

1. I-Gas, II- Oil, III- Fresh water, IV- Saline water

Q-77. Choose the correct option based on the following two statements:

(A) Fractional crystallization of feldspar in felsic magma leads to depletion of Eu in the melt.

(B) Eu in state is a compatible element in plagioclase in the plagioclase-felsic melt system.

1. Both A and B are correct

2. A is correct but B is incorrect

3. Both A and B are incorrect

4. A is incorrect but B is correct

Q-78. Choose the correct option based on the following two statements:

(A) In a mineral that does not contain Rb, the ration does not change with time.

(B) In a mineral that does not contain Sr, the ration does not change with time.

1. A is correct but B is incorrect

2. Both A and B are correct

3. Both A and B are incorrect

4. A is incorrect but B is correct

Q-79. Choose the INCORRECT statement based on the figure showing the P-T path (SPTF) for a body of rock undergoing metamorphism along a seduction zone.

1. SPT depicts prograde metamorphic path

2. The highest grade mineral assemblage will be produced at P

3. TF depicts retrograde metamorphic path

4. The highest grade mineral assemblage will be produced at T

Q-80. Which one of the following mineral assemblages, found in mantle nodules, represent the greatest depth of derivation?

1. Plagioclase + Clinopyroxene

2. Clinopyroxene + Olivine

3. Olivine + Spinal

4. Olivine + Garnet

Q-81.

The above stereogram represents which one of the following point groups?

1.

2.

3.

2.

4.

Q-82. A blue-coloured calcite spar grain from a stained carbonate rock is analyzed for Mg,Sr and Fe. It is founds to be low in Mg and Sr, and high in Fe. It is interpreted as a product of

1. Deep burial diagenesis

3. Deep phreatic diagenesis

4. Sea floor diagenesis

Q-83.

A field geologist observes cross-section of a sandstone-shale sequence while looking at an outcrop as a deposit of

1. A uniform flow

2. A non-uniform flow

Q-84. The right sequence of sulfide ore minerals according to their increasing order of reflectance is

1. Galena, pyrite, sphalerite, pyrrhotite

2. Sphalerite, galena, pyrrhotite, pyrite

3. Sphalerite, pyrrhotite, galena, pyrite

4. Sphalerite, pyrrhotite, galena, pyrite

Q- 85.

A cubic mineral ‘MX’ has the unit cell dimension of . Which of the following for its unit cell is true if

Mass of

Mass of

Density of

1. Primitive

2. c-centered

3. face-centered

4. body-centered

Q-86.

 Systems Tract Lower and upper boundary A Low stand Systems Tract Transgressive sur-face, Unconformity B Transgressive Systems Tract Transgressive Surface, Maximum flooding surface C High stand Systems Tract Maximum flooding surface, Transgressive surface D Falling Stage Systems Tract Unconformity, Transgressive surface.

The table lists ‘Systems tracts and their lower and upper boundaries. The correct pairing is

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. D

Q-87. and are the velocities of the P and S waves in the mantle, respectively. and are the average of PKP and SKS phases along their paths of travel, respectively, then which of the following is correct?

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q-88. A thick sedimentary formation, in which the seismic wave velocity increases with depth( according to the relation , overlies a formation of constant velocity consider the following statements:

Statement I: The seismic wave emerging at an angle of from the shot point is critically refracted at the interface.

Statement II: The seismic wave emerging at an angle of from the shot is totally reflected back at the interface.

1. Statements I and II are true.

2. Statements I is true; II is false.

3. Statements I is false; and II is true

4. Statements I and II are false.

Q-89. Gravity anomalies collected at the corners of a square grid of 20 m on the ground surface

Covering extensively a massive ore deposit of surrounded by the country rock of density added up to 22 milligrams. The mass of the ore body is

1. less than 2.1

2. close to 4.1

3. close to but less than 6.3

4. Greater than 6.3

Q-90. The gravity anomaly over a vertical rod(extending down to infinity) buried at a depth of is If the rod is buried at a depth of 50m, the gravity anomaly would be

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q-91. Two rock unit A and B of identical physical and chemical properties are inductively magnetized in the Earth’s magnetic field at the magnetic latitudes and respectively. If() and () are intensities and dips of their induced magnetism,respectively,then

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q-92. and are the Fourier Transforms of the magnetic anomalies is obtained by upward continuation of to a height of h. Then and are related by

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q-93. Consider the two time sequences with the elements

What are the first two elements of their convolution?

1. 5,1

2. 2,4

3. 1,5

4. 3,6

Q-94. The transmitter of a time – domain EM system is in the form of a circular loop. If the radius of loop is doubled and the current is reduced by half, the dipole moment of the system will

1. Decrease to half its original value

2. Decrease to one-fourth its original value

3. Decrease by a factor of two

4. Decrease by a factor of four

Q-95. In a borehole, the formation fluids at a depth of have a density of . Then the overpressure at that depth is

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q-96. The voltage output of an ideal induction coil of area and 50000 turns with a sinusoidal excitation of peak to peak amplitude at

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q-97. A function satisfies the differential equation with The Taylor’s series expansion of in the vicinity

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q-98 The Following table shows the values of a function for selected values of x.

The value of, at is

1. 25

2. 35

3.39

4.46

Q-99. If the Earth were a Visco-elastic medium, which one of the following would best represent the stress and strain relation, where A and B are positive coefficient?

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q-100. Two high grade uranium deposits A and B are located in a province at different locations. Deposit A is exposed and B is at a depth of 10 meters. The size of B is ten times that of A. In this scenario, the radiometric anomaly of

1. B is much large then that of A

2. A is significant and that of B zero

3. Both A and B are zero

4. A and B are equal

Q-101. The following table shows the values of resistance R measured spacings a, at a location covered by clay.

Which of the following conclusions can be made?

1. Clay extends to a depth of at least 25m

2. Clay is underlain by a thick basement of high resistivity

3. Clay underlain by water bearing sands overlying a thick basement

4. Clay is underlain by water bearing gravel overlying a clay formation

Q-102. A 30 km continental crust of density is in isostatic equilibrium, when it overlies the mantle of density thick oceanic crust of density under oceans is also in isostatic equilibrium, with reference to the continental crust. The thickness of the water column in the oceans is

1. 5 km

2. 8 km

3. 10 km

4. 12 km

Q-103. A change in the channel pattern from meandering to braided pattern implies a sudden

1. Increase in discharge

4. Decrease in width-depth ratio

Q-104. Which one of the following statement about an anabranching channels is correct?

1. The islands of an anabranching river are usually in sand and gravel.

2. The individual channels of an anabranching system are highly unstable.

3. The channel gradient is very steep

4. Anabranching patterns are usually associated with lacustrine and alluvial plains or low readient fans

Q-105. Identify the two karts landforms with the following characteristics

1. This feature is formed by merging of do lines and is characterized by uneven floor.

2. Uvulas and blind valleys, respectively

3. Sinkholes and poljes, respectively

4. Uvulas and polijes, respectively

106. Read the following statements and identify the correct one

A. Long shore transport extends the beach in the direction of the drift, if the sediment supply is high.

B. Long shore transport extends the beach in the direction of the drift, if the sediment supply is low.

C. A beach is extended by the angle of swash if the sediment supply is high.

D. A beach is extended by the angle of swash if the sediment supply is low.

1. A and B are correct.

2. B and C are correct.

3. A and C are correct.

4. A and D are correct

107. The critical erosion velocity of

1. Sand is higher than silt and clay

2. silt and clay is higher than sand

3. Sand is higher than pebbles

4. Pebbles is higher than cobbles

108. Identify the glacial features

1. A=Esker, B=Terminal moraine, C= Kettle hole,D=Kame

2. A=Kame, B=terminal moraine, C= Kettle hole, D= Outwash plain

3. A= Esker, B=Kettle hole, C=Kame, D=Terminal moraine

4. A= Kame, B=Kettle hole, C= Outwash plain, D= Terminal moraine

Q-109.

The above graphs represent downstream changes in certain channel geometry or hydraulic parameters for a rive along the Y axis. Identify the incorrect answer

2. A= transport competence, B=discharge

3. A= width-depth ratio, B=channel roughness

4. A= mean bed load grain size, B= channel width

Q-110. One of the following probable effects will not be observed under rising sea level

1. Estuaries and lagoons will widen and deepen

2. Accentuated development of Transgressive dune formation

4. Spread of living corals or acceleration of coral growth

Q-111. Which one of the following statements about Normalized Difference Vegetation Index (NDVI) is incorrect?

1. NDVI is directly related to the percent of ground cover and amount of biomass.

2. Greater difference between near-infrared and red reflectance indicates less vegetation

3. NDVI values close to zero represent bare soil

4. Higher value of NDVI represent dense green vegetation

Q-112. Indentify the biomes

1. A= taiga, B=grassland, C= deciduous forest, F=chaparral

2. A= desert, B=taiga, D= deciduous forest, F= equatorial forest

3. A= polar, B= grassland, D=desert, E=taiga

4. A= tundra, B= taiga, D=grassland, E=deciduous forest

Q-113. Read the following statement and identify the corresponding soil forming processes

I. It is the process of removal of constituents in suspension or solution by percolating water from upper to lower layers.

II. It is the process of deposition of soil material in the lower layers

1. Humification and IIIuviation, respectively

2. IIIuviation and Eluviations, respectively

3. Eluviations and IIIuviation, respectively

4. IIIuviation and Horizonation, respectively

Q-114. If the tile of the Earth’s axis is zero degree and all the landmass is confined only to the eastern hemisphere then the isotherms will

1. Be perfectly straight and parallel to the latitudes.

2. Shift slightly towards the poles in the eastern hemisphere

3. Shift slightly towards the equator in the eastern hemisphere.

4. Shift towards the poles in the western hemisphere.

Q-115. Hydraulic gradient beneath A and B during rainy and dry seasons will

1. Not vary

2. Be lower during rainy season than dry season

3. Be higher during rainy season than dry season

4. Change only if rainfall occurs down slope of B

Q-116. Weathering of granite leads to formation of solid residual minerals and release of some element as dissolved ions. The elements released are:

1. Si and Al

2. Na and K

3. Fe and Mn

4. Si, Al and Fe

Q-117. Presence of minerals such as pyrite and uraninite as detrital minerals in sedimentary rocks suggests that at the time of deposition

1. Chemical weathering was not active

2. Provenance weathered at a fast rate

Q-118. Given similar climatic conditions, the rate of weathering of granite is highest when:

1. Covered by sand

2. Covered by gravel

3. Not covered

4. Covered by soil and organic matter

Q-119. Let monochromatic intensity based on wavelength be denoted by and that based on frequency be denoted by If and , the relationship between and and is

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q-20. Let the typical radius of a cloud droplet be 10 and that of a rain droplet be 1 mm. Then, the number of cloud droplets that need to coalesce to form one rain droplet is:

1. 10

2.

3.

4.

Q-121. In solving a linear one-dimensional advection equation, assume that one employs finite difference method using Leap frog time integration scheme and central differences for the space derivatives. Let c be the phase speed, be the grid size and time step, respectively, in the above scheme. For this scheme to be numerically stable, the following condition needs to be satisfied

1.

3.

4.

Q-122. Retrieval of temperature profile of the atmosphere using satellite radiance measurement is considered a difficult task. Which of the following statements related to the difficulty of temperature retrieval is false ?

1. Temperature retrieval is an inverse problem.

2. The associated weighting function is broad in nature.

3. Surface contribution term is present in the radiative transfer equation.

4. There is no one-to-one correspondence between the satellite radiance measure-ments at different wavelengths and the different vertical regions of the atmosphere.

Q-123. Over the Indian seas, Low pressure systems do not intensity to cyclonic storms during the South-west monsoon for the following reason:

1. Ocean surface no longer serves as energy source for the cyclone

2. The existence of strong north-south pressure gradients

3. The strong onshore flow to the Indian sub-continent and its associated cloudiness

4. The presence of strong vertical wind shear of the horizontal wind

Q-124. Consider the following atmospheric temperature profile of a rising moist air parcel with denoting the lapse rate. The lifting condensation level is at

1. 6 km

2. 2 km

3. 4 km

4. 8 km

Q-125. The scattering efficiency of a particle in the Rayleigh regime for radiation of wavelength is 16 times that for wavelength of The relationship between and is:

1.

3.

4.

126. The presence of clouds in the Earth’s atmosphere results in

1. Warming of the surface

2. Cooling of the surface

3. Warming or cooling of the surface depending on the altitude at which the cloud is present.

4. Warming or cooling of the surface depending on the optical thickness of the cloud and the altitude at which it is present.