IAS Prelims GS Paper 1 2017 Solution Part-3- Question 51 to 75 (Download PDF)

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IAS Prelims GS Paper 1 2017 Solutions: Part 1 - Questions 1 to 25

Dr. Manishika Jain provides quick solutions of IAS Prelims GS Paper-1 Solutions 2017 questions 1 to 25 (with answers).

Table contain shows the list of Important Topics

Table contain shows the list of Important Topics

A

B

Ancient India

3

Modern India

7

Art/culture

4

Economy

9

Polity

23

Science & Technology

10

Govt Schemes

12

Environment/Ecology

11

International Relations

12

Geography

9

51. The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to?

(a) Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.

(b) Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India.

(c) Impose censorship on national press.

(d) Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.

Answer. D

52. The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to

(a) Developing solar power production in our country

(b) Granting licenses to foreign T. V. channels in our country

(c) Exporting our food products to other countries

(d) Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our country

Answer. A

53. Consider the following statements:

1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations.

2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. D

54. Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?

(a) Resident Indian citizens only

(b) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only

(c) All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments

(d) All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1St April, 2004

Answer. C

55. With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:

1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.

2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta.

3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer. B

56. Consider the following statements:

1. In tropical regions, Zika Virus Disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.

2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. C

57. Consider the following statements:

1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.

2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. A

58. What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ scheme?

1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.

2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. C

59. With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’, consider the following statements:

1. It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.

2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. C

60. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?

1. Gharial

2. Indian wild ass

3. Wild buffalo

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

61. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.

2. They are correlative to legal duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

62. Consider the following pairs:

1. Radhakanta Deb — First President of the British Indian Association

2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty —Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha

3. Surendranath Banerjee — Founder of the Indian Association

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

63. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

(a) Liberty of thought

(b) Economic liberty

(c) Liberty of expression

(d) Liberty of belief

Answer: B

64. With reference to ‘Quality Council of India (QCI) ’, consider the following statements:

1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry.

2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

65. What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?

1. To supply credit to small business units

2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers

3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

66. With reference to ‘Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD) ’, consider the following statements:

1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme ‘Emerging Urban Forms — Policy Responses and Governance Structure’.

2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

67. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity

(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.

(b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.

(c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.

(d) a band of dedicated party workers.

Answer: A

68. Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface (UPI) ’?

(a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments.

(b) Digital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about two decades.

(c) FDI inflows will drastically increase.

(d) Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective.

Answer: A

69. The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, ‘String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of

(a) Observation and understanding of the Universe

(b) Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses

(c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth

(d) Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth

Answer: A

70. With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of ‘genome sequencing’, often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?

1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.

2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants.

3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

71. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

(a) the executive and legislature work independently.

(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.

(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.

(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.

Answer: C

72. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.

(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.

(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.

(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

Answer: A

73. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

(a) The Preamble

(b) The Fundamental Rights

(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) The Fundamental Duties

Answer: A

74. If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination?

(a) 6

(b) 7

(c) 8

(d) 9

Answer: B

75. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through

1. Adjournment motion

2. Question hour

3. Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

- Published/Last Modified on: June 24, 2017

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