AIIMS PG Solved Paper 1999 (Part 7 of 20)

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1. A lady approaches a physician for contraceptive advice. On examination there were two symmetrical ulcers on vulva, which were well defined with a firm base. Which of the following is the most likely cause
   1. Syphilis
   2. Chancre
   3. Herpes
   4. Malignancy

   Answer: a

2. Carcinoma endometrium with involvement of inguinal nodes belongs to which stage
   1. StageI
   2. Stage II
   3. Stage III
   4. Stage IV

   Answer: d

3. Cone biopsy is indicated in all the following conditions except
   1. Micro invasive carcinoma
   2. indefnite diagnosis on colposcopy
   3. CIN III
   4. Cervical metaplasia

   Answer: d

4. Pap smear from a lady shows CIN grade III. Which of the following is the next step in management
   1. cone biopsy
   2. punch biopsy
   3. large loop excision
   4. colposcopy directed biopsy

   Answer: d

5. A patient is diagnosed to have CIN II. She approaches you for advice. You can definitely tell her the risk of lesion progressing to malignancy as
   1. 5 %
   2. 15 %
   3. 60 %
   4. 30 %

   Answer: n/a

6. A child presents with multiple permeating lesions involving all the bones in body. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis
   1. Neruoblastoma
   2. Histiocytosis X
   3. Metastasis from osteosarcoma
   4. Metastasis from Wilm՚s tumor

   Answer: b

7. A 70 year old man presents with urinary retention and back pain. Which of the following investigations is needed next
   1. Serum acid phosphatase
   2. Serum alkaline phosphatase
   3. serum electrophoresis
   4. serum calcium

   Answer: a

8. Which of the following is not seen after trans urethral resection of prostate
   1. Hyponatremia
   2. Hypernatremia
   3. Transient blindness
   4. convulsions

   Answer: b

9. A patient is having benign prostatic hyperplasia. He is having a blood pressure of mmHg and a serum Creatinine of 3.5. Which of the following drugs is not to be used to treat him
   1. Prazocin
   2. Enlapril
   3. Amlodipine
   4. Metoprolol

   Answer: b

10. A patient presents at 32 weeks of pregnancy with suspected antepartum hemorrhage. Her blood pressure is mmHg. Which of the following is the next step in management
    1. Immediate cesarian section
    2. ca
    3. blood transfusion
    4. none

    Answer: c