📣 Paper 3 has been removed from NET from 2018 (Notification)- now paper 2 and 3 syllabus is included in paper 2. Practice both paper 2 and 3 from past papers.
NTA NET Geography Paper 3 December 2015 with Solutions and Answers
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Note: This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each All Question are compulsory.
1. Which of the following authors is associated with the concept of Geosyncline?
(1) Penck and Davis
(2) Wooldridge and Morgan
(3) Hall and Dana
(4) Wooldring and Lapichon
2. Match List – I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List – I (Author) | List – II (Book) |
| (a) K. W. Butzer | (i) Process in Geomorphology |
| (b) W. M. Davis | (ii) Geomorphology and time |
| (c) C. Embleton, et al | (iii) Geomorphology from the Earth |
| (d) J. Thornes, et al | (iv) The Geomorphic Cycle |
| Codes: | ||||
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (iii) | (iv) | (ii) | (i) |
| (2) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) |
| (3) | (iii) | (i) | (iv) | (ii) |
| (4) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) |
3. Which one of the following plateau can be considered as intermonatane?
(1) Brazilian
(2) Indian
(3) Tibatian
(4) Arabian
4. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R) . Select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A) : Eskers are the features formed due to the depositional action of wind.
Reason (R) : Eskers are the outcome of Fluvio-glacial deposition.
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A and (R are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
5. Negative movements of baselevel produce:
(1) Rejuvenation
(2) Stabilisation
(3) Attrition
(4) Saltation
6. Consider the following rock characteristics:
(a) These are layered
(b) These contain fossils
(c) These are transported rocks
(d) These are formed in water bodies
7. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List-I (Place of deposition) | List-II (Name of deposition) |
| (a) Channel | (i) Vertical accretion deposits |
| (b) Channel margin | (ii) Lag deposits |
| (c) Overbank flood plain | (iii) Colluvium |
| (d) Valley margin | (iv) Lateral accretion deposits |
| Codes: | ||||
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (ii) | (i) | (iii) | (iv) |
| (2) | (iv) | (ii) | (i) | (iii) |
| (3) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) | (iii) |
| (4) | (ii) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) |
8. Which one of the following is features is formed when the roof of a limestone
Cavern collapses?
(1) Tarn
(2) Polje
(3) Swallow hole
(4) Doline
9. Which one of the following is devoid of atmosphere?
(1) Mesosphere
(2) Stratosphere
(3) Magnetosphere
(4) Thermosphere
10. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R) . Select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A) : Presence of in the earth՚s atmosphere is essential.
Reason (R) : can absorb heat.
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List-I (Gase in the atmosphere above 100 km altitude) | List-II (Altitudinal range) |
| (a) Nitrogen | (i) 200 - 1100 km |
| (b) Oxygen | (ii) 1100 – 3500 km |
| (c) Helium | (iii) 100 – 200 km |
| (d) Hydrogen | (iv) 3500 km and above |
| Codes: | ||||
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (iv) | (ii) | (i) | (iii) |
| (2) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) | (iv) |
| (3) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) |
| (4) | (ii) | (i) | (iii) | (iv) |
12. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other laballed as Reason (R) . Select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A) : Tropical cyclones have a life span of about one week time.
Reason (R) : They can produce low amount of rainfall due to low atmospheric pressure.
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
13. Which one of the following is essential for the formation of equatorial westerlies?
(1) Large-scale earthquake over the equator.
(2) Shifting of trade-wind belt towards poles.
(3) Shifting of polar easterlies towards equator.
(4) Large-scale forest-fire in the equatorial rain forest.
14. A type of climate after Koppen which is characterised by an almost uniform distribution of precipitation throughout the year with the precipitation for the driest month more than 6 cms. And a very low daily range of temperature is devoted by:
(1) Aw
(2) Af
(3) Am
(4) As
15. Which of the following is a local cold wind?
(1) Chinook
(2) Bora
(3) Foelin
(4) Khainsin
16. At which of the following altitudinal ranges ozone is found in concentrated form?
(1) 10 – 25 km
(2) 15 – 35 km
(3) 35 – 50 km
(4) 50 - 65 km
17. Identify the correct normally occurring life cycle of frontal depressions from the following:
(1) 1 – 2 days
(2) 2 – 3 days
(3) 3 – 4 days
(4) 4 – 5 days
18. Maximum density of sea water is at temperature:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
19. Which one of the following is correct arrangement of oceans in ascending order of their size?
(1) India – Arctic – Atlantic – Pacific
(2) Arctic – Indian – Atlantic – Pacific
(3) Pacific – Atlantic – Indian – Arctic
(4) Atlantic – Pacific – Arctic – Indian
20. Match List – I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
| List – I (Oceans) | List – II (Currents) |
| (a) Indian | (i) EI – Nino |
| (b) North Pacific | (ii) Kuroshio |
| (c) South Pacific | (iii) Monsoon Drift |
| (d) Atlantic | (iv) Gulf Stream |
| Codes: | ||||
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) |
| (2) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) |
| (3) | (i) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) |
| (4) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) | (iii) |
21. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List – I (Ocean depth) | List – II (Thermal layers) |
| (a) 0 – 500 metres | (i) Cold |
| (b) 500 - 1000 metres | (ii) Cool |
| (c) 1000 – 1500 metres | (iii) Warm |
| (d) > 1500 metres | (iv) Thermocline |
| Codes: | ||||
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
| (2) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) |
| (3) | (iv) | (ii) | (iii) | (i) |
| (4) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) | (iii) |
22. Ocean waves obtain their energy from:
(1) Solar system
(2) Hot spring
(3) River water
(4) Blowing wind
23. Over the past century world sea lecels has risen by around:
(1) 15 cm
(2) 25 cm
(3) 35 cm
(4) 45 cm
24. Identify the correct sequence of vegetation belts in an ascending order in mountain environment from the following:
(1) Submontane, Montane, Subalpine, Alpine
(2) Alpine, Subalpine, Montane, subalpine
(3) Montane, Submontane, Alpine, Subalpine
(4) Alpine, Montane, Subalpine, Submontane
25. Who was the first person to divide the circle into 360 degree?
(1) Ptolemy
(2) Herodotus
(3) Eratoshenes
(4) Hipparchus
26. ‘There is a strong relationship between environment, image and decision making.’ This statement pertains to:
(1) Humanism
(2) Behaviouralism
(3) Radicalism
(4) Welfare Approach
27. Who are considered as the founders of Mathematical Geography?
(1) Plato and Aristotle
(2) Thales and Anaximeneder
(3) Hecataeus and Herodotus
(4) Ptolemy
29. Who laid the foundation of modern geographical thought?
(1) Humboldt and Ritter
(2) Kant and Varenius
(3) Hettner and Richthopen
(4) Humboldt and Davis
30. Read the following statements:
(a) Ratzel dominated German Geography in the second half of the 19th century.
(b) Ratzel coined the term Anthropogeographic.
(c) Ratzel was highly influenced by Darwin՚s theory of evolution of species.
Which of the above statements are correctly associated with Ratzel?
(1) (a) , (b) and (c)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) Only (c)
31. Which is the correct sequence in chronological order of the following Greeks who contributed vastly to the evolution of geographical thought during the ancient period?
(1) Aristotle, Eratosthenes, Anaximander, Ptolemy
(2) Eratosthenes, Anaximander, Ptolemy, Aristotle
(3) Anaximander, Aristotle, Eratosthenes, Ptolemy
(4) Ptolemy, Anaximander, Aristorle, Eratosthenes
32. Which one of the concept describes the absence of cities and towns within a radius of 75 km from a large city?
(1) Urban Clusters
(2) Urban Dispersals
(3) Urban Agglomeration
(4) Urban Shadows
33. How physiological density of population is defined?
(1) A ratio between total population and total area.
(2) A ration between total rural population and total rural area.
(3) A ration between total population and total cultivated area.
(4) Both (2) and (3)
34. As per the estimate of 2014, how much population of the world is found in Africa?
(1) About 12 %
(2) About 14 %
(3) About 16 %
(4) About 18 %
35. The ‘Triangular Pattern’ of rural settlements develop generally
(1) At the bank of the straight rivers
(2) At the confluence of two rivers
(3) Between two hills
(4) At the confluence of two rivers and one hill
36. Which one of the following techniques would you consider for estimation of requirements of population in an area for planning allocations?
(1) Carrying Capacity analysis
(2) Cost-benefit analysis
(3) Population projection
(4) Rank-size rule
37. Which of the following exhibits “Cumulative percentages of population against cumulative percentages of area” ?
(1) Gravity Model
(2) Beta Index
(3) Ogive Curve
(4) Lorenz Curve
38. The density of population is highest in which of the following states of India according to the census of 2011?
(1) Bihar
(2) Punjab
(3) Uttar Pradesh
(4) West Bengal
39. Consider the following road network diagram of an area:
Select the correct connectivity matric for the above network:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
40. Which of the following industrial regions of the India is called as ‘Ruhr of India’ ?
(1) Bengaluru – Tamil Nadu Industrial Region
(2) Chhota Nagpur Industrial Region
(3) Vishakhapatnam – Guntur Industrial Region
(4) Hugli Industrial Region
41. Match List – I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
| List- I (Industries) | List – II (Activity/technology) |
| (a) Cottage | (i) Petroleum refining |
| (b) Small | (ii) Information Technology |
| (c) Major | (iii) Locks Manufactyring |
| (d) Foot – Loose | (iv) Embroidry |
| Codes: | ||||
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (i) | (iv) | (ii) | (iii) |
| (2) | (iii) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) |
| (3) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) |
| (4) | (ii) | (i) | (iii) | (iv) |
42. In which Island the ‘Rice Bowl’ of japan is situated?
(1) Kyushu
(2) Honshu
(3) Shi koku
(4) Ryuku
43. Which one of the following authors suggested a fivefold division of adopters on the basis of the time lag between receiving and acting upon new information as shown in diagram below?
(1) E. M. Rogers
(2) L. W. Bowden
(3) Z. Giriliches
(4) T. Hagerstrend
44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List-I (Authors) | List – II (Techniques) |
| (a) P. R. Gould | (i) Croup – Combination Analysis |
| (b) E. L. Ullman | (ii) Concept of Economic Rent |
| (c) J. C. Weaver | (iii) Game Theory |
| (d) D. Ricardo | (iv) Flow Theory |
| Codes: | ||||
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (i) | (ii) | (iv) | (iii) |
| (2) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) |
| (3) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) |
| (4) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) |
45. Which one of the following authors examined the strure of urban settements prior to the impact of large-scale industrialization in book ‘the Pre-Industrial City Past and Present’ ?
(1) M. Pacioue
(2) G. Sjoberg
(3) P. Hall
(4) D. Dwyer
46. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List-I (Human Races) | List-II (Majority of persons from) |
| (a) Mongoloid | (i) Sri Lanka |
| (b) Caucasoid | (ii) South Korea |
| (c) Australoid | (iii) Ethiopia |
| (d) Negroid | (iv) Germany |
| Codes: | ||||
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (i) | (iii) | (iv) | (ii) |
| (2) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) | (iii) |
| (3) | (iv) | (ii) | (iii) | (i) |
| (4) | (ii) | (i) | (iii) | (iv) |
47. Which of the following water ways has more politico-nomic significance?
(1) Palk Strait
(2) Malacca Strait
(3) Suez Canal
(4) Panama Canal
48. H. J. Mackinder was the professor of which subject at London University?
(1) Political Science
(2) Economics
(3) Geography
(4) Social Anthropology
49. To control pollution from ships and offshore platforms is taken care of by which of the following acts provision by the Government of India?
(1) Major Port Trust Act, 1963
(2) Merchant Shipping Act, 1958
(3) Maritime Zone Act, 1976
(4) India Ports Act, 1908
50. Which of the following is not correct matched?
(1) Batwa Tribe and Congo Basin
(2) Ruwala tribe and Central Iran
(3) Inuit and Canada
(4) Yukhagir and Siberia
51. Which one of the following author՚s theory of primate cities focuses on the forces of agglomeration and cumulative effects of agglomeration in the growth of large cities?
(1) Walter Christaller
(2) G. K. Zipf
(3) C. Robert Mayfield
(4) Mark Jefferson
52. Which of the following activities does not come under the scope of Drought prone Areas Programme?
(1) Development and management of irrigation resources.
(2) Soil and moisture conservation and afforestation
(3) Restruring of cropping pattern and pasture development.
(4) Flood control and erosion.
53. Which of the following forces has expansionary momentum emanating from the centres of economic expansion to other regions?
(1) Centripetal
(2) Centrifugal
(3) Gravitational
(4) Pull
54. Growth pole Model is postulated by:
(1) Smith
(2) Perroux
(3) Eratosthenese
(4) Haggerstand
55. Which of the following sets of Macro and Meso regions were delineted by the town and Country Planning Organization of India?
(1) 13 Macro Regions and 32 Meso Regions
(2) 15 Macro Regions and 61 Meso Regions
(3) 7 Macro Regions and 42 Meso Regions
(4) 13 Macro Regions and 35 Meso Regions
56. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
| List-I (Zone) | List-II (Characteristics) |
| (a) Non Ecumene | (i) Very Scattered Economic Activities |
| (b) Intensive Ecumene | (ii) Rular Occupancy; extensive type of agriculture |
| (c) Sporadic Ecumene | (iii) Empty space with no foreseeable development |
| (d) Extensive Ecumene | (iv) Urban Occupancy and industrial patterns, intensive agriculture |
| Codes: | ||||
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (ii) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) |
| (2) | (i) | (ii) | (iv) | (iii) |
| (3) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) |
| (4) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) |
57. The first master plan of Delhi was passed in which of the following year?
(1) 1952
(2) 1962
(3) 1965
(4) 1968
58. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List-I | List-II |
| (a) Central Place Theory | (i) Land use pattern in large cities developed around a number of discrete centres rather than a single centre |
| (b) Multiple Nuclei Theory | (ii) Position of the breaking point between two towns |
| (c) The Law of Retail Trade Gravitation | (iii) Hexagonal Service Area |
| (d) Breaking Point Theory | (iv) Residential belt of considerable density surrounding the C. B. D |
| Codes: | ||||
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) |
| (2) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) | (iii) |
| (3) | (i) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) |
| (4) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) |
60. Match List – I With List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List – I (National Park) | List – II (State) |
| (a) Fossil | (i) Himachal Pradesh |
| (b) Brahmagiri | (ii) Madhya Pradesh |
| (c) Guindy | (iii) Tamil Nadu |
| (d) Rohia | (iv) Karnataka |
| Codes: | ||||
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
| (2) | (iii) | (iv) | (ii) | (i) |
| (3) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) |
| (4) | (ii) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) |
61. Given below are two statement, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as
Reason (R) . Select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A) : During Post-Independence Period service sectors are slowly but gradually increasing is contribution to Gross Domestic Products in India
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
62. The Rajasthan Canal (Indira Gandhi Canal) draws its water from the rivers:
(1) Yamuna river
(2) Chambal river
(3) Ravi
(4) Satluj and Beas
63. Which of the state Union Territory has continuously maintained favourable sex ration since census are conducted in India?
(1) Arunachal Pradesh
(2) Meghalaya
(3) Kerala
(4) Puducherry
64. Which group of state GDP share in 2013 - 2014 was greater than population share and area share?
(1) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Assam, Meghalaya, Chattisgarh and Rajasthan
(2) Uttar Pradesh
(3) Bihar
(4) West Bengal
65. Which one of the following states recorded the highest population in the Census 2011?
(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Bihar
(4) West Bengal
66. Which region of India is known as the ‘Rice Bowl’ ?
(1) Indo-Gangetic Plain
(2) Krishna-Godavari Delta Region
(3) North Eastern Region
(4) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
67. Which one of the following data can be represented by means of Choropleth map?
(1) Location Specific
(2) Point Specific
(3) Area specific
(4) Line Specific
68. Match List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List – I (Aspect) | List – II (Diagram) |
| (a) Rural and Urban Population | (i) Comparative Bars |
| (b) population density | (ii) Isolines |
| (c) Relative relief | (iii) Dots and Spheres |
| (d) Decadal Population | (iv) Choropleth |
| Codes: | ||||
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) |
| (2) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
| (3) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) | (iii) |
| (4) | (iii) | (iv) | (ii) | (i) |
69. Which of the following diagrams are called Pie-diagrams?
(1) Pictorial diagrams
(2) Circle and sector diagrams
(3) Ring diagrams
(4) Sphere diagrams
70. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List – I (Satellite) | List – II (Altitude) |
| (a) IRS – 1A | (i) 36,000 kms |
| (b) SPOT – 3 | (ii) 705 kms |
| (c) LANDSAT – V | (iii) 932 kms |
| (d) INSAT Series | (iv) 832 kms |
| Codes: | ||||
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (iii) | (iv) | (ii) | (i) |
| (2) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) |
| (3) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) | (iii) |
| (4) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
71. Among the following water which will have highest spectral reflectance in visible band?
(1) Clear water
(2) Clay filled/Suspended water
(3) Algae mixes with water
(4) Silt and Algae mixed water
72. Which of the following will happen when satellite images are geo-referenced?
(1) Contrast images are improved
(2) Positional errors are removed
(3) Errors in DN values are removed
(4) None of the above
73. Match List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from codes given below:
| List – I (Linear lengths) | List – II (Fractional measures) |
| (a) Nanometre | (i) |
| (b) Micrometre | (ii) |
| (c) MIllimetre | (iii) |
| (d) Metre | (iv) |
| Codes: | ||||
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) |
| (2) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) |
| (3) | (iii) | (i) | (iv) | (ii) |
| (4) | (i) | (iii) | (ii) | (iv) |
74. Lorenz curve is used to find out which of the following?
(1) Relative concentration of a phenomenon
(2) Absolute concentration of a phenomenon
(3) Both relative and absolute concentration of a phenomenon
(4) Probability of dispersion of a phenomenon
75. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List – I (Bands of Energy) | List – II (Wavelength in ) |
| (a) Photographic | (i) 3.0 – 15.0 |
| (b) Optical | (ii) 0.7 – 0.3 |
| (c) Reflected Infrared | (iii) 0.3 – 15.0 |
| (d) Far Infrared | (iv) 0.3 – 0.9 |
| Codes: | ||||
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) |
| (2) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
| (3) | (iii) | (i) | (iv) | (ii) |
| (4) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) | (iii) |