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NTA NET Geography Paper 3 June 2015
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Note: This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. Which of the following is formed due to tectonic forces?
(1) Rift valley
(2) Hanging valley
(3) Super imposed valley
(4) Antecedent valley
2. Drowned glaciated valleys in high latitudes regions are known as:
(1) Ocean trenches
(2) Submarine ridges
(3) Fiords
(4) Submarine canons
3. Match List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given:
List-I | List-II |
---|---|
(a) Basalt | (i) Geneis |
(b) Granite | (ii) Quartzite |
(c) Sandstone | (iii) Schist |
(d) Shale | (iv) Slate |
Codes: | ||||
---|---|---|---|---|
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) | (iii) |
(2) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
(3) | (iv) | (ii) | (i) | (iii) |
(4) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) | (iv) |
4. Consider the following statement regarding kants view on the origin of the earth:
(a) Kant introduced the Newtonian law of gravitation in his theory.
(b) Kant developed his theory accepting the principle of conservation of angular momentum.
(c) Though Laplace put forward the nebular hypothesis of origin of the earth, Kant is regarded by many as the real propounder of the nebular hypothesis.
Which of the statements are correct?
(1) () a and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (a) (b) and (c)
5. Excessive folding results in:
(1) Reverse fault
(2) Geosyncline
(3) Nappe formation
(4) Block disintegration
6. “All coral reefs begun as fringe reefs around an inland” . This was indicated in:
(1) Day՚s glacial control theory
(2) Daly՚s subsidence theory
(3) Darwin՚s glacial control theory
(4) Darwin՚s subsidence theory
7. Guttenberg discontinuity is found between the:
(1) Upper core and lower core
(2) Mantle and the core
(3) Crust and the mantle
(4) Upper mantle and lower mantle
8. Who postulated the concept of Sea floor spreading?
(1) W. J. Morgan
(2) T. J. Wilson
(3) Le Pichon
(4) Harry Hess
9. Mauna Loa, in Hawaii is famous for:
(1) Botanical garden
(2) Monitoring rainfall
(3) Monitoring rainfall
(4) Continuous monitoring of atmospheric since 1957
10. Match the List-I and List-II select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I | List-II |
---|---|
(a) Isohel | (i) Line joining places having same average percentage of cloudiness |
(b) Isohaline | (ii) line joining the places having same duration of sunshine |
(c) Isotach | (iii) line joining the place having equal salinity in the ocean |
(d) Isoneph | (iv) Line joining place having equal wind speed |
Codes: | ||||
---|---|---|---|---|
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (ii) | (iii) | (i) | (iv) |
(2) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
(3) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) |
(4) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) |
11. The only truly continuous pressure belt on the earth is:
(1) Southern hemisphere subtropical high
(2) Northern hemisphere subtropical high
(3) Equatorial low
(4) Southerm hemisphere sub polar low
12. Which two global winds originate from the subtropical highs?
(1) Polar easterlies and westerlies
(2) Trade winds and polar easterlies
(3) Trade winds and westerlies
(4) Chinook and Foehn
13. An aircraft is flying at an altitude of 10 km. At that altitude the temperature is What is the ambient temperature on the ground:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
14. Which one of the following is not a necessary condition for condensation?
(1) Saturation
(2) Surface
(3) High altitude
(4) Water vapour
15. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R) . Select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A) : Land surface is heated more quickly and to a greater extent than the water surface when subject to an equal amount of insolation
Reason (R) : The specific heat of land is more than that of water
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
16. Which of the following does not enhance the instability of air?
(1) Radiation cooling of earth՚s surface after sun set
(2) Rasiation cooling from cloud top
(3) Heating an air mass from below as it passes over a warm surface
(4) Intense solar heating in the lowermost atmosphere
17. The speed of a ocean current is about:
(1) 2% of the speed of prevailing wind
(2) 4% of the speed of prevailing wind
(3) 6% of the speed of prevailing wind
(4) 8% of the speed of prevailing wing
18. The ocean water was iceberg free during the era:
(1) Archaean
(2) Paleozoic
(3) Cenozoic
(4) Mesozoic
19. The salinity of sea ice ranges from:
(1) 0 – 3%
(2) 3 – 10%
(3) 11 – 17%
(4) 28 – 35%
20. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (River) | List – II Sediment transported to ocean in tons⟋y |
---|---|
(a) Ganga | (i) 726 |
(b) Mekong | (ii) 500 |
(c) Brahmputra | (iii) 1600 |
(d) Yangtze | (iv) 1000 |
Codes: | ||||
---|---|---|---|---|
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (iii) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) |
(2) | (ii) | (i) | (iii) | (iv) |
(3) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) |
(4) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) |
21. The place where an organism or community of organisms lives is called:
(1) Environment
(2) Atmosphere
(3) Habital
(4) Society
22. Photosynthesis is the process by which:
(1) Radiant energy converted into chemical energy
(2) Radiant energy converted into thermal energy
(3) Radiant energy concerted into bio-energy
(4) Radiant energy converted into geo-thermal energy
23. ‘Vadose water’ remain in between:
(1) Crust and mantle
(2) Mantle and core
(3) Ground surface and water table
(4) Ground surface and tropopause
24. Which one of the following is not a macro-nutrient to plants?
(1) Carbon
(2) Iron
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Oxygen
25. The concept of the laws of ‘primate city’ was given by:
(1) E. Huntington
(2) E. C. Semple
(3) M. Jefferson
(4) W. Christaller
26. To Which school does Eratosthenes, the father of geography belongs to:
(1) Roman
(2) Arab
(3) German
(4) Greek
27. Von thunen Agricultural locational theoty is bases on:
(1) Empirical Approach
(2) Normative Approach
(3) Deductive Approach
(4) Behavioral Approach
28. Who was gratly influenced by Le Play՚s triology of Place – Work – Folk and adopted an alternate triology of Environment – Function – Organism?
(1) Roxby
(2) Geddes
(3) Herbertsen
(4) Chisholm
29. Which Indian geographer has written the book ‘Geography of Purans’ ?
(1) S. M. Ali
(2) P. P. Karan
(3) M. Shafi
(4) B. Dubey
30. Match List – I with List- II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Modern Indian geographers) | List – II (Field of Specializations) |
---|---|
(a) R. L Singh | (i) Urban Geography |
(b) G. S. Gosal | (ii) Settlement Geography |
(c) C. D. Despande | (iii) Regional Development and planning |
(d) V. L. S. Prakash Rao | (iv) Population Geography |
Codes: | ||||
---|---|---|---|---|
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
(2) | (iii) | (i) | (iv) | (ii) |
(3) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) | (iii) |
(4) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) |
31. Who among the following scholars is not related with behavioural geography?
(1) W. K. Kink
(2) Peter Gould
(3) Yi Fu Twan
(4) Gilbert White
32. Which one of the following states in India has the lowest population density in the latest census?
(1) Arunachal Pradesh
(2) Jammu and Kashmir
(3) Sikkim
(4) Mizoram
33. Which of the following stages of districts in India has recorded the highest sex ratio in 2011?
(1) High stationary stage
(2) Early expanding stage
(3) Late expanding stage
(4) Low stationary stage
34. Which one of the following districts in India has recorded the highest sex ratio in 2011?
(1) Mahe (Pondicherry)
(2) Almora (Uttarakhand)
(3) Alwar (Rajasthan)
(4) Thanjavur (Tamil Nadu)
35. Which one of the following density is calculated using following formula: where N is the number of inhabitants, K is per capita quantity of requirement, S is area in square kilometers, and K is the quantity of resources produced per .
(1) Arithmetic
(2) Agricultural
(3) Physiological
(4) Economic
36. Which one of the following measures of central tendency is used to indicate the ‘centre of population’ ?
(1) Median
(2) Mode
(3) Mean
(4) Harmonic mean
37. Which of the concept relates population size to the land area with a view to assess pressure of population upon the resurces of thee area?
(1) Population Growth Rate
(2) Population Density
(3) Argiculture Density
(4) Physiological Density
38. Which one of the following religions has maximum territorial region of dominance in the world?
(1) Budhism
(2) Islam
(3) Christianity
(4) Hinduism
39. Which one of the following authors has given the concept of “Demand cone” as shown in the diagram?
(1) Pareto
(2) August Losch
(3) Christaller
(4) Weber
40. Which of the following group of crops can be grown in the area having temperature and annual rainfall more than 150 cm?
(1) Barley, Jute, Tea
(2) Rubber, Rice Jute
(3) Tea, Coffee, Maize
(4) Rice, Wheat, Maize
41. Match List- I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I (Authors) | List – II (theory) |
---|---|
(a) Weber | (i) Minimum production cost |
(b) Smith | (ii) Maximum profit |
(c) Hotelling | (iii) Minimum transport cost |
(d) Hoover | (iv) Market competition |
Codes: | ||||
---|---|---|---|---|
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (iii) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) |
(2) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
(3) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) |
(4) | (i) | (ii) | (iv) | (iii) |
42. Given below are two statements one labelled as assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R) select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A) : All Japanese steel production occurs at coastal locations.
Reason (R) : The Japanese steel capacity has a coastal exposure and direct access to deep-water ports.
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are the true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) .
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) as not the correct explanation of (A) .
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
43. Consider the following map of an area:
44. Which one of the following is correct sequence of urban land uses in respect of ab, bc and cd as per given graph?
(1) Industrial, Residential and Commercial
(2) Commercial, Residential and Industrial
(3) Commercial, Industrial and Residential
(4) Residential, Commercial and Industrial
45. Whiteness classified agricultural systems of the world. How many agricultural systems were identified by him?
(1) 10
(2) 19
(3) 14
(4) 13
46. Which one of the following group of countries is leading total coal import countries of the world in 2013 according to the world coal association?
(1) Bangladesh, South Africa and France, India
(2) Poland, South Africa, japan and France
(3) China, Japan, India, S. Korea
(4) Japan, South Korea, Frannce, Canada
47. Match List- I with List – II and select the correct answer from codes given below:
List – I (Risely՚s classification of India Race) | List- II (Representattives of the respective races) |
---|---|
(a) Indo-Aryans | (i) The Bhils of Rajasthan |
(b) Dravidians | (ii) The Brahmins of Odisha |
(c) Mongoloids | (iii) The jats of Odisha |
(d) Mongolo-Dravidians | (iv) The Bhutias of Utarakhand |
Codes: | ||||
---|---|---|---|---|
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
(2) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) |
(3) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) | (iii) |
(4) | (iii) | (i) | (iv) | (ii) |
48. Given below two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R) , select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A) Indian Ocean has become the military bases by many super- powers.
Reason (R) There strong geo-political benefits in Indian ocean and adjacent countries.
Codes.
(1) Both (A) and are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is flase.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
49. Match list – I with List – II and select correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I (State) | List-II (Tribes) |
---|---|
(a) Gujarat | (i) The gonds |
(b) Madhya Pradesh | (ii) The Mikirs |
(c) Assam | (iii) The Khonds |
(d) Odisha | (iv) The Bhils |
Codes: | ||||
---|---|---|---|---|
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
(2) | (iii) | (iv) | (o) | (ii) |
(3) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) |
(4) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) |
50. Match List – I with list – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I (Countries) | List-II (Party System Government) |
---|---|
(a) U. S. A. | (i) One party |
(b) China | (ii) Two party |
(c) India | (iii) Three party |
(d) U. K. | (iv) Multi party |
Codes: | ||||
---|---|---|---|---|
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
(2) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) | (iii) |
(3) | (iii) | (iv) | (ii) | (i) |
(4) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) |
Q-51. Which of the following statement statements is the base of the concept of caste region?
(1) Numberical strength of a caste
(2) Social ranking of a caste in a region
(3) Proportion of a cast in population
(4) Share of a caste in land ownership
52. Which one of the following is the propounder of the shown model?
(1) Zelinsky՚s Mobility Model
(2) Rely՚s Modelvof Migration
(3) Gosal Model of Migration
(4) Lee՚s Model of Migration
53. Which one of the following regions is defined as “A Contiguous geographical area characterised by cultural homogeneity …”
(1) Population Region
(2) Geographical Region
(3) Cultural Realm
(4) Settlement zone
54. Which constitutional Amendment Act has 12th schedule devolving functions to municipal bodies?
(1) 73rd
(2) 72nd
(3) 74th
(4) 75th
55. Which of the urban structure models labelled three areas: (1) The city of death, (2) the city of need and (3) the city of superfluity?
(1) Exploitive model of urban structure
(2) Multiple nuclei
(3) Sector model
(4) Social area analysis model
56. To study regional imbalance and regional disparities in India, which one of the following methods was applied?
(1) Uniweighted Ranks
(2) Composite Index
(3) Principal Component Analysis
(4) Input-Output Analysis
57. Which one of the following factors does not determine the kinds and amount of economic ctivity in the region?
(1) Cost of Transportation
(2) Inequality of Income
(3) Technology of Production
(4) Demand Side of the Equation
58. The main thrust of regional planning is:
(1) To remove areal
(2) To initiate economic growth
(3) To have industrial expansion
(4) To increase per capita income
59. Regional growth model by Douglass C. North emphasize the role of ‘________ factors’ in regional growth.
(1) Hexagenous
(2) Endogenous
(3) Indogenous
(4) Exogenous
60. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the given below:
List- I (Concept) | List-II (Definitions) |
---|---|
(a) Urban growth | (i) Relatively large and densely settled populations engaged primarily in non- agricultural economic pursuits |
(b) Town group | (ii) Net population increase of towns and cities |
(c) Urban | (iii) Proportionate increase of the urban population in relation to total population in a given country |
(d) Urbanisation | (iv) A group of towns which adjoined one another so closely as to form a single inhabited urban locality |
Codes: | ||||
---|---|---|---|---|
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (iv) | (i) | (iii) | (ii) |
(2) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) | (iii) |
(3) | (iii) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) |
(4) | (i) | (iii) | (ii) | (iv) |
61. Where is Govind Sagar Lake located?
(1) Ranjit Sagar Dam
(2) Hirakund Dam
(3) Kosi Dam
(4) Bhakra Nangal Dam
62. The maximum % share of irrigated area of the gross cultivated area is found in:
(1) Jammu and Kashmir
(2) Uttar Pradesh
(3) Punjab
(4) Haryana
63. Kakrapara irrigation project is on the river:
(1) Narmada
(2) Godavari
(3) Tapti
(4) Mahanadi
64. The river Indus Originates from:
(1) Mansarowar Lake
(2) Kailash range
(3) Loktak lake
(4) Tibet
65. Given below are two statements, one labelled as assertion (A) and other labelled as
Reason (R) , select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A) : Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh are major wheat producing states of India.
Reason (R) : The well-drained fertile soil, temoerature at the time of sowing and about 75 cm rainfall are necessary for good wheat production.
Codes:
1 Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .
2 Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A .
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
66. Which of the canal has transformed agricultural activities of sri Ganga Nagar, Bikaner and jaisalmer district?
(1) Kanhar Canalanga Canal
(2) Ram Ganga Canal
(3) Sharada sahayak Canal
(4) Indira Gandhi Canal
67. Report published by UNDP which compares countries based on education levels of people their health status and per capita income, is:
(1) Human Education Report
(2) Human Population Report
(3) Human Development Report
(4) Human Quaity Report
68. Spatial data is stored in computer by using:
(1) Plotter digitizer and keyboard
(2) Keyboard and plotter
(3) Scanner, Digitizer and keyboard
(4) Digitizer and scanner
69. LANDSAT, SPOT and IRS are examples of:
(1) Sun-synchronous satellites
(2) Geostationary satellites
(3) Radars
(4) Natural satellites
70. Which one of the following statistical method is best suited for groundwater exploration by using GIS tools?
(1) Standard deviation method
(2) Principal component analysis method
(3) Trial and error method
(4) Index-overlay method
71. Which one of the following countries first launched Operational Remote Sensing satellite?
(1) USA
(2) UK
(3) USSR
(4) Germany
72. Raster data start from:
(1) Top – Right corner of the displayed window.
(2) Top-left corner of the displayed window.
(3) Bottom-Right corner of the displayed window.
(4) Bottom-Left corner of the displayed window.
73. Which one of the following rearms shows variance of a particular distribution?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
74. Assume there are four families in a country. The average per capita income of these families is ₹ . 5000. If the income of three families is ₹ 3000, ₹ 4000 and ₹ 7000 respectively, what is the income of fourth family?
(1) 7500
(2) 2000
(3) 3000
(4) 6000
75. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Landsat 4 and 5 TM) | List-II (System Characteristics) |
---|---|
(a) IFOV | (i) 185 km |
(b) Revisit | (ii) 705 km |
(c) Altitude | (iii) 16 days |
(d) Swath. Width | (iv) 30 30 m for 1 - 5,7 bands |
Codes: | ||||
---|---|---|---|---|
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
(2) | (ii) | (iii) | (i) | (iv) |
(3) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) |
(4) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) |