📣 Paper 3 has been removed from NET from 2018 (Notification)- now paper 2 and 3 syllabus is included in paper 2. Practice both paper 2 and 3 from past papers.

NTA NET Social-Medicine June-2012 Solved Paper II

Online Paper 1 complete video lectures with Dr. Manishika Jain. Join now!

  • Secrets to easily score in UGC Paper-I-Get India՚s number 1 postal course with thoursands of UGC NET Paper-I questions Examrace NTA-NET Paper-I Postal Course
    1. The recommended level of fluorides in drinking water per litre in India is (A) < 0.5 mg (B) 0.5 to 0.8 mg (C) > 0.8 to < 1.2 mg (D) > 1.2 mg
      • Answer: b
    2. Which one of the following amino acids is non-essential?
      1. Leucin
      2. Isoleucine
      3. Lysine
      4. Glycine
      • Answer: d
    3. The most invasive and virulent species of Brucella Micro-organism is
      1. B. Melitensis
      2. B. Abortus
      3. B. Suis
      4. B. Canis
      • Answer: a
    4. All of the following diseases requre surveillance according to WHO except:
      1. Chicken-pox
      2. Yellow fever
      3. Malaria
      4. Rabies
      • Answer: a
    5. Salk vaccine is a
      1. Live vaccine
      2. Live attenuated vaccine
      3. Killed vaccine
      4. Toxoid
      • Answer: c
    6. The most widely used strain of rubella virus for vaccine production is
      1. HPV⟋77
      2. Japanese To 336
      3. RA
      4. Cendehill virus
      • Answer: c
    7. All of the following are reasons for rapid spread of influenza except:
      1. Short incubation period
      2. Large number of subclinical cases
      3. Presence of cross immunity
      4. Short duration of immunity
      • Answer: c
    8. Which of the following characteristics are true for a ‘Case Control Study’
      1. Both exposure and outcome have occurred before start of a study.
      2. It cannot test causal hypothesis.
      3. Relative risk can be calculated.
      4. A long period of follow up is required.
      • Answer: a
    9. The area is aid to be hyper endemic if spleen rate exceeds
      1. 10%
      2. 30%
      3. 50%
      4. 70%
      • Answer: c
    10. The denominator for ‘General Fertility Rate’ is
      1. Mid-year population
      2. Mid-year population of 15 − 45 years
      3. Mid-year population of all women
      4. Mid-year population of 15 − 45 year age group married women
      • Answer: b
    11. All are true of cohort study except
      1. Both groups are free of disease.
      2. The study proceeds from cause to effect.
      3. It is an observational study.
      4. Relative risk cannot be computed.
      • Answer: d
    12. The radiation exposure in mammography is
      1. 0.3 rads
      2. 1 rad
      3. 5 rads
      4. 10 rads
      • Questions 13 to 20 are of multiple selection type.
      • Answer: a
    13. The components of validity of screening tests are
      1. Sensitivity
      2. Specificity
      3. Positive Predictive Value
      4. Negative Predictive Value
        1. 1,2 and 3 correct
        2. 1 and 2 correct
        3. 1,3 and 4 correct
        4. 1 and 4 correct
      • Answer: b
    14. Which of the following viral hepatitis can be prevented by vaccination?
      1. Hepatitis A
      2. Hepatitis B
      3. Hepatitis C
      4. Hepatitis E
        1. 1 & 2 correct
        2. 1,2 & 3 correct
        3. 1 & 3 correct
        4. 2,3 & 4 correct
      • Answer: a
    15. Reduced osmalarity ORS recommended by WHO and UNICEF have following ingredients:
      1. Sodium Chloride
      2. Soda bicarob
      3. Potassium Chloride
      4. Trisodium citrate dihydrate
        1. 1,2, & 3 correct
        2. 2 & 3 correct
        3. 1,2 & 4 correct
        4. 1,3 & 4 correct
      • Answer: d
    16. Gastro-intestinal symptoms are very prominent in the following types of bacterial food poisoning:
      1. Salmonella typhimurium
      2. Staphylococcus aurius
      3. Clostridium botulinum
      4. Clostridium perfingens
        1. 1,2, & 3 correct
        2. 1,2 & 4 correct
        3. 3 & 4 correct
        4. 2,3 & 4 correct
      • Answer: b
    17. W. Ban crofti is transmitted to man by the bites of the following mosquitoes:
      1. Anopheles
      2. Culex
      3. Aedes
      4. Mansonia
        1. 1,2, & 3 correct
        2. 1 & 2 correct
        3. 2 & 3 correct
        4. 2,3 & 4 correct
      • Answer: a
    18. In India rabies does not occur in the following territories:
      1. Kerala
      2. Tamilnadu
      3. Lakshadweep Islands
      4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
        1. 1 & 3 correct
        2. 1 & 2 correct
        3. 1,3 & 4 correct
        4. 3 & 4 correct
      • Answer: d
    19. Following is true about the recommended additional daily allowance for the pregnant women
      1. Calories – 300 K cal
      2. Proteins – 15 gm
      3. Vitamin A – 750 µg
      4. Calcium – 600 mg
        1. 1,2, & 4 correct
        2. 1,2 & 3 correct
        3. 2 & 3 correct
        4. 1 & 2 correct
      • Answer: a
    20. Following Arboviral diseases are highly prevalent in India.
      1. Dengue
      2. Japanese Encepheltis
      3. Chikungunya
      4. Yellow Fever
        1. 1,2, & 4 correct
        2. 1,2 & 3 correct
        3. 1 & 3 correct
        4. 1 & 2 correct
      • Answer: b
    21. (A) Adolescents are less vulnerable to disease than the very young and very old (R) . Little prominence is given to health problems specific to their age.
      1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (A) .
      2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A) .
      3. A is true but R is false.
      4. A is false but R is true.
      • Answer: b
    22. (A) Absentism is a useful index in industry (R) . The causes of sickness absentismare entirely due to sickness.
      1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (A) .
      2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A) .
      3. A is true but R is false.
      4. A is false but R is true.
      • Answer: c
    23. (A) The problems affecting the health of mothers and child are multifactorial (R) . Mothers and children constitute a large vulnerable group.
      1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (A) .
      2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A) .
      3. A is true but R is false.
      4. A is false but R is true.
      • Answer: b
    24. (A) crucial elements in primary prevention is early diagnosis and prompt treatment (R) . Oral cancer is amenable to primary prevention.
      1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (A) .
      2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A) .
      3. A is true but R is false.
      4. A is false but R is true.
      • Answer: d
    25. (A) Triage consists of rapidly classifying the injured on the basis of severity of their injuries and the likelihood of their survival with prompt medical intervention (R) . Triage should be adapted to locally available skills.
      1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (A) .
      2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A) .
      3. A is true but R is false.
      4. A is false but R is true.
      • Answer: b
    26. (A) Matching is a process by which controls are selected in such a way that they are similar to cases with regard to certain variables which are known to influence the outcome of disease (R) . Matching is liable to distort or confound the results.
      1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (A) .
      2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A) .
      3. A is true but R is false.
      4. A is false but R is true.
      • Answer: c
    27. (A) Food fortification is a public health measure for prevention of nutritional deficiency disorders (R) . It is a process whereby nutrients are added to food to maintain and improve the quality of diet of a group of people.
      1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (A) .
      2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A) .
      3. A is true but R is false.
      4. A is false but R is true.
      • Answer: a
    28. (A) Vasectomy has the highest cost benefit as compared to tubectomy (R) . Therefore it is readily accepted by the population.
      1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (A) .
      2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A) .
      3. A is true but R is false.
      4. A is false but R is true.
      • Answer: c
    29. (A) Congenital anomaly is the most common cause of neonatal mortality in India (R) . According to WHO congenital anomaly includes all biochemical, structural and functional disorders present at birth.
      1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (A) .
      2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A) .
      3. A is true but R is false.
      4. A is false but R is true.
      • Answer: d
    30. (A) SRS (2003) estimates are 7.2% of total population to be above the age of 60 years (R) . This low proportion of geriatric population is due to failure of increase in life expectancy of Indian population.
      1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (A) .
      2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A) .
      3. A is true but R is false.
      4. A is false but R is true.
      • Answer: c
    31. Identify correct ascending order of retinol equivalents of commonly consumed food stuffs.
      1. Milk, Carrots, Eggs, Green Leaves
      2. Carrot, Eggs, Milk, Green Leaves
      3. Milk, Eggs, Green Leaves, Carrots
      4. Green Leaves, Eggs, Milk, Carrots
      • Answer: c
    32. Identify correct descending order of Vitamin C content of commonly consumed Indian food stuffs
      1. Orange, Lime, Amla, Guava
      2. Lime, Amla, Guava, Orange
      3. Amla, Guava, Lime, Orange
      4. Guava, Amla, Lime, Orange
      • Answer: c
    33. Identify the correct chronological order of the commencement of the following National Health Programmes
      1. National Malaria Control Programme, National Blindness Control Programme, National Tuberculosis Control Programme, National Mental Health Programme.
      2. National Tuberculosis Control Programme, National Malaria Control Programme, National Blindness Control Programme, National Mental Health Programme
      3. National Malaria Control Programme, National Tuberculosis Control Programme, National Blindness Control programme, National Mental Health Programme
      4. National Tuberculosis Control Programe, National Blindness Control Programme, National Malaria Control Programme, National Mental Health Programme
      • Answer: c
    34. Identify correct chronological order of committees for Health Planning
      1. Chadah Committee, Mukerji Committee, Jangalwala Committee, Shrivastav Committee
      2. Mukerji Committee, Chadah Committee, Jangalwala Committee, Shrivastav Committee
      3. Jangalwala Committee, Mukerji Committee, Chadah Committee, Shrivastav Commmittee
      4. Shrivastav Committee, Jangalwala Committee, Mukerji Committee, Chadah Committee
      • Answer: a
    35. Identify correct chronologal order of invention of vaccines:
      1. Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B, Rotavix, H1N1 influenza
      2. Hepatitis B, Hepatitis A, Rotavix, H1N1 influenza
      3. Rotavix, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis A, H1N1 influenza
      4. Rotavix, Hepatitis B, H1N1Influenza, Hepatitis A
      • Answer: b
    36. Identify descending order of incidence of low birth weight babies in the following countries:
      1. Pakistan, China, India, U. S. A.
      2. Pakistan, India, U. S. A. China
      3. India, Pakistan, China, U. S. A.
      4. India, Pakistan, U. S. A. China
      • Answer: d
    37. Identify the child survival rate among the following countries from lowest to highest:
      1. Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, India
      2. Pakistan, Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka
      3. Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka
      4. Bangladesh, Pakistan, India, Sri Lanka
      • Answer: c
    38. Identify the ‘Total Neonatal Mortality Rate’ of the following states in India (2006) from highest to lowest:
      1. Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Tamil Nadu
      2. Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Haryana
      3. Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
      4. Madhya Pradesh, Haryana, Chhattisgarh, Tamil Nadu
      • Answer: a
    39. Identify percentage distribution of causes of ‘Maternal Deaths’ (2001 − 2003) from highest to lowest
      1. Sepsis, Haemorrhage, Abortion, Obstructed Labour
      2. Obstructed Labour, Haemorrhage, Abortion, Sepsis
      3. Haemorrhage, Sepsis, Abortion, Obstructed Labour
      4. Sepsis, Haemorrhage, Obstructed Labour, Abortion
      • Answer: c
    40. Identify the sitewise incidence of cancer in India among females from highest to lowest
      1. Cervix, Breast, Oesophagus, Mouth and Pharynx
      2. Breast, Cervix, Mouth and Pharynx, Oesophagus
      3. Cervix, Breast, Mouth and Pharynx, Oesophagus
      4. Breast, Cervix, Oesophagus Mouth and Pharynx
      • Questions 41 to 50 are matching items. This consists of two lists of statements, terms or symbols and candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other.
      • Answer: d
    41. Match List-I with List-II
      Table Supporting: NTA NET NTA UGC NET Previous Years Papers June-2012 Solved Paper II
      List-I (Type of Vaccine)List-II (Diseases)
      1. Live vaccine
      2. Killed vaccine
      3. Inactivated vaccine
      4. Toxoid
      1. Pertussis
      2. B. C. G.
      3. Diphtheria
      4. Rabies
      • A
      • B
      • C
      • D
          • 2
          • 3
          • 1
          • 4
          • 4
          • 1
          • 3
          • 2
          • 4
          • 1
          • 2
          • 3
          • 2
          • 1
          • 4
          • 3
      • Answer: d
    42. Match List-I with List-II
      Table Supporting: NTA NET NTA UGC NET Previous Years Papers June-2012 Solved Paper II
      List-I (Vaccinses)List-II (Routes)
      1. Measles
      2. BCG
      3. DPT
      4. OPV
      1. Oral
      2. Subcutaneous
      3. Intradermal
      4. Intramuscular
      • A
      • B
      • C
      • D
          • 3
          • 2
          • 4
          • 1
          • 2
          • 4
          • 3
          • 1
          • 1
          • 3
          • 2
          • 4
          • 2
          • 3
          • 4
          • 1
      • Answer: d
    43. Match List-I with List-II
      Table Supporting: NTA NET NTA UGC NET Previous Years Papers June-2012 Solved Paper II
      List-I (Places)List-II (Population)
      1. Anganwadi 1.
      2. Rural subcentre
      3. Primary Health Centre
      4. Community Health centre
      1. 100,000
      2. 1,000
      3. 5,000
      4. 30,000
      • A
      • B
      • C
      • D
          • 2
          • 3
          • 4
          • 1
          • 2
          • 4
          • 3
          • 1
          • 1
          • 3
          • 4
          • 2
          • 1
          • 2
          • 4
          • 3
      • Answer: a
    44. Match List-I with List-II
      Table Supporting: NTA NET NTA UGC NET Previous Years Papers June-2012 Solved Paper II
      List-I (Diseases)List-II (Methods of control)
      1. AIDS
      2. Yaws
      3. Typhoid Fever
      4. Tetanus
      1. Immunization
      2. Chemotheraphy
      3. Use of Condom
      4. Sanitation
      • A
      • B
      • C
      • D
          • 1
          • 2
          • 4
          • 3
          • 3
          • 2
          • 4
          • 1
          • 2
          • 3
          • 4
          • 1
          • 3
          • 4
          • 2
          • 1
      • Answer: b
    45. Match List-I with List-II
      Table Supporting: NTA NET NTA UGC NET Previous Years Papers June-2012 Solved Paper II
      List-I (Breeding Places)List-II (Vector)
      1. Stagnant water
      2. Clear running water
      3. Water in cans
      4. Water weeds
      1. Anopheles
      2. Calex
      3. Mansonia
      4. Ades
      • A
      • B
      • C
      • D
          • 1
          • 3
          • 2
          • 4
          • 2
          • 1
          • 4
          • 3
          • 2
          • 1
          • 3
          • 4
          • 2
          • 3
          • 1
          • 4
      • Answer: b
    46. Match List-I with List-II
      Table Supporting: NTA NET NTA UGC NET Previous Years Papers June-2012 Solved Paper II
      List-I (Level of Prevention)List-II (Strategy)
      1. Health promotion
      2. Specific protection
      3. Early diagnosis and treatment
      4. Rehabilitation
      1. Immunization
      2. Blind School
      3. Nutrition Education
      4. Case finding
      • A
      • B
      • C
      • D
          • 3
          • 1
          • 4
          • 2
          • 1
          • 3
          • 4
          • 2
          • 2
          • 3
          • 1
          • 4
          • 3
          • 2
          • 1
          • 4
      • Answer: a
    47. Match List-I with List-II
      Table Supporting: NTA NET NTA UGC NET Previous Years Papers June-2012 Solved Paper II
      List-I (Recommended maximum limit of)List-II (Concentraton)
      1. Lead 1.
      2. Fluoride
      3. Mercury
      4. Nitrate
      1. 5 mg⟋litre
      2. 0.01 mg⟋litre
      3. 50 mg⟋litre
      4. 0.001 mg⟋litre
      • A
      • B
      • C
      • D
          • 2
          • 1
          • 4
          • 3
          • 2
          • 4
          • 1
          • 3
          • 1
          • 2
          • 4
          • 3
          • 2
          • 1
          • 3
          • 4
      • Answer: a
    48. Match List-I with List-II
      Table Supporting: NTA NET NTA UGC NET Previous Years Papers June-2012 Solved Paper II
      List-I (Diseases)List-II (Antibiotic used in chemoprophylaxis)
      1. Cholera
      2. Bacterial conjunctivitis
      3. Meningococcal
      4. Meningities Influenza
      1. Amantadine
      2. Tetracycline
      3. Erythromycin
      4. Sulphadiazine
      • A
      • B
      • C
      • D
          • 2
          • 3
          • 4
          • 1
          • 1
          • 3
          • 2
          • 4
          • 1
          • 2
          • 4
          • 3
          • 2
          • 4
          • 1
          • 3
      • Answer: a
    49. Match List-I with List-II
      Table Supporting: NTA NET NTA UGC NET Previous Years Papers June-2012 Solved Paper II
      List-I (Nutrient)List-II (Rich sources)
      1. Iron
      2. Calcium
      3. Vitamin C
      4. Niacin
      1. Amla
      2. Groundnuts
      3. Ragi
      4. Green leafy vegetables
      • A
      • B
      • C
      • D
          • 4
          • 2
          • 3
          • 1
          • 1
          • 3
          • 2
          • 4
          • 4
          • 3
          • 2
          • 1
          • 4
          • 3
          • 1
          • 2
      • Answer: d
    50. Match List-I with List-II
Table Supporting: NTA NET NTA UGC NET Previous Years Papers June-2012 Solved Paper II
List-I (Types of Dust)List-II (Pneumoconiosis)
  1. Coal
  2. Cotton fibre
  3. Grain
  4. Sugar cane
  1. Bagassosis
  2. Farmer՚s Lung
  3. Anthracosis
  4. Byssinosis
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
      • 3
      • 4
      • 2
      • 1
      • 3
      • 2
      • 4
      • 1
      • 2
      • 1
      • 4
      • 3
      • 1
      • 4
      • 3
      • 2
  • Answer: a