# CBSE NET July 2018 Geography Paper 2 Answer Key Part 1 - Q. 76 - 100 (Download PDF)

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CBSE NET Geography this time was pretty different from the previous papers with lots of focus on development, regional geography and statistics. Questions from remote sensing were very less. We have provided the detailed solutions to the questions at Doorsteptutor-CBSE-NET (Based on NTA-UGC) Geography (Paper-II) . For preparation for paper 1 check out our link at Doorsteptutor CBSE-NET (Based on NTA-UGC) Paper-I. We would be coming up with many further videos and topics so stay subscribed at - https://www.youtube.com/c/Examrace.

View CBSE NET July 2018 Geography Part 4 Explanations on YouTube

View CBSE NET July 2018 Geography Part 4 Explanations on YouTube

76. Which one of the following criteria was used to delineate the National Capital Region for planning purpose?

(A) Functional unity and Physiographic characteristics.

(B) Functional unity contiguity and demographic characteristics.

(C) Functional unity, Administrative contiguity and distance from New Delhi.

(D) Functional unity, Physiographic and demographic characteristics and Administrative contiguity.

77. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

 List-I (Dimension of development) List-II (Indicator of development) (a) Economic (i) Percentage of reclaimed land to total waste land (b) Social (ii) Percentage of minority voters to total minority electorates (c) Political (iii) Percentage of female literates to total female population (d) Ecological and Environmental (iv) Agriculture production per hectare

Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

78. Which one of the following statements is not true about the concept of development?

(A) Development is a continuous process.

(B) Development is a multi-faceted process.

(C) Development stands for growth without a Change.

(D) Meaning of development change in time and space.

79. Read the following statements and select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) A Perspective Plan may also be termed as long term plan.

(b) Perspective Plans are prepared for a period of 20 - 25 years.

(c) A Perspective Plan does not ensure flexibility.

(d) Perspective Plans ensure spatial integration of plans at different hierarchical levels.

Code:

(A) Only (a) is correct

(B) (a) and (b) are correct

(C) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(D) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

80. Read the following statements and select the correct answer using the code given below:

Statements:

(a) Summation of ranks method is best suited to measure development levels, when the data used are highly skewed.

(b) Summation of ranks method is quite simple and easy to handle.

(c) Z-Score method is the robust and most reliable among all the methods used to measure levels of development

(d) Use of Principal Component Analysis method should be avoided if inter-correlation among different components of development is weak or doubtful.

Code:

(A) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(B) (a) and (b) are correct

(C) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

(D) (b) and (d) are correct

81. Which one of the following Countries holds the first rank in commercial dairy farming?

(A) USA

(B) India

(C) China

(D) Pakistan

82. Which one of the following years the modern cotton textile mill was first of all established in Maharashtra?

(A) 1850

(B) 1854

(C) 1858

(D) 1862

83. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

 List-I (Name of Dams) List-II (States) (a) Mayurkashi (i) Tamil Nadu (b) Mettur (ii) Andhra Pradesh (c) Nagarjunasagar (iii) Odisha (d) Hirakund (iv) West Bengal

Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(D) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

84. Which one of the following dates is correct for the normal withdrawal of south-west monsoon from Indian Territory?

(A) September, 1

(B) September, 5

(C) September, 10

(D) September, 15

85. Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh is known for which one of the following ore deposits?

(A) Bauxite

(B) Anthracite

(C) Magnetite

(D) Muscovite

Table contain shows the occurrence and deposits of economic mineral

Table contain shows the occurrence and deposits of economic mineral

The district contains immense reserves of cement grade limestone, iron ores, copper and lead minerals. The occurrence and deposits of economic mineral are as follows:

 1 Limestones: Narjee limestone is very extensively present in the Palnadu region which is used for the manufacture of cement. 2 Diamonds: Extensive mining was carried out in the past in the vicinity of Kollur village in Sattenapalli range on the banks of Krishna river. It is believed that the famous “Kohinoor” diamond was found at Kollur. The diamond mines in the district are situated near Madugula, Mallavaram and Sarangapalli hills. 3 Diatomaceous Earth: It was reported to occur at Thimmayapalem and Innavolu near Vinukonda. 4 Copper and Lead Ores: Ancient workings for copper and lead exist in the vicinity of Agnigundala and Karempudi. The Ores of copper and lead are extensively found in these areas and extraction is being carried out. 5 Iron-Ore: Low Grade iron-ore magnetite quartzites occur near Thumurukota near Macherla. 6 Gypsum: Gypsum occurs as spasely distributed plates at a depth of one to three metres in the marine silts near Santaravuru. 7 Quartz: These are several reefs of quartz in Palnadu, Sattenapalli, Narasaraopet and Vinukonda which might find use in glass manufacture. 8 Kankar: Kankar or calcareous nodules, used for manufacture of lime, has a wide distribution in the district near Chebrolu, Mangalagiri, Pedakakani, Venkatayapalem and Nadendla. 9 White Clays: White clay occurs near Macherla. 10 Granite: Gondwana granite stones are useful in building construction. Palnadu lime stone was utilized for the construction of stupas during the Buddhist period.

86. Who among the following architect-planner prepared Master Plan for Chandigarh City?

(A) Charles Correa

(B) Frank Lloyd Wright

(C) Edwin Lutyens

(D) Le-Corbusier

87. Jharkhand ranks along with which one of the following group of states in the availability coal reserves in India?

(A) West Bengal and Chhatisgarh

(B) Odisha and Chhatisgarh

(C) Odisha and West Bengal

(D) Chhatisgarh and Karnataka

Table contain shows the State-wise coal reserves in India

Table contain shows the State-wise coal reserves in India

State-wise coal reserves in India as on 01.04. 2017 is as follows:

 Name of the state Reserves in billion tonne % of total reserves JHARKHAND 82.440 26.16 ODISHA 77.285 24.52 CHATTISHGARH 56.661 17.98 WEST BENGAL 31.667 10.05 MADHYA PRADESH 27.673 8.78 TELENGANA 21.464 6.81 MAHARASTRA 12.259 3.89 OTHERS 5.699 1.81

88. Adityapur Special Economic Zone (SEZ) is famous for:

(A) Engineering and Machine tools

(B) Wool Textiles

(C) Automobile and Auto components

(D) Dairy products

89. Match the List –I with List –II and the correct answer from the code given below:

Table contain shows the (States) and (Per Capita SGDP in, 000 Rs. 2015 - 16)

 List –I (States) List –II (Per Capita SGDP in, 000 Rs. 2015 - 16) (a) Haryana (i) 156 (b) Karnataka (ii) 115 (c) Kerala (iii) 180 (d) Punjab (iv) 146

Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

90. Given below are the two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): India has not been able to bridge its trade deficit.

Reason (R): India’s exports in terms of value has been declining.

Code:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

91. Match the List –I with List –II and the correct answer from the code given below:

 List –I (Map Type) List –II (Information Content) (a) Chorochromatic (i) showing regional variation in distribution by shades (b) Choroschematic (ii) Areal distribution by Tints (c) Choropleth (iii) showing imaginary lines joining places of equal value (d) Isopleth (iv) Areal distribution by symbols

Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

(B) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(C) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

92. On a topographical map of 1: 50, 000 scale the contour Interval is given as 10 meters. Place ‘A’ is situated on a contour of 200 m MSL and another place ‘B’ is located on a countour of 240 m MSL. The distance between ‘A’ and ‘B’ on the map is 4.0 cms. The correct gradient between ‘A’ and ‘B’ therefore would be:

(1) $\frac{1}{30}$

(2) $\frac{1}{40}$

(3) $\frac{1}{50}$

(4) $\frac{1}{60}$

93. Which one of the following codes is correct Rn value of the given distribution of 6 settlements of an area of gentle topography?

(A) $0.95$

(B) $1.45$

(C) $1.63$

(D) $1.86$

94. Which one of the following organizations looks after the receiving and processing of remote sensing data in India?

(A) SHAR Centre

(B) SDS Centre

(C) LPS Centre

(D) NRSC

95. Which one of the following is the correct sequences of various EMR spectrum bands in an ascending order of wavelength?

(A) Blue-Green-Red-Ultraviolet

(B) Red-Blue-Green-Ultraviolet

(C) Ultraviolet-Blue-Green-Red

(D) Ultraviolet-Green-Blue-Red

96. Given below are the two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): Radars are considered active sensors.

Reason (R): These sensors detect objects and their ranges using radio waves.

Code:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

97. A set of sample of 20 places of mean annual rainfall were randomly selected from normally distributed universe that has mean annual rainfall of 320 cm. The sample mean was recorded 250 cm with standard deviation of 150 cm. Which one of the following significance tests is correct for the selected samples?

(A) $Z-$test

(B$\right)\phantom{\rule{0.2em}{0ex}}{X}^{2}-$test

(C$\right)\phantom{\rule{0.2em}{0ex}}F-$test

(D) $t-$test

98. In a frequency distribution of $X$ series having 6 integers with missing one, ${X}_{i}$, among them, the parameters of calculating mean, $\overline{X}$, are as $\sum fx\phantom{\rule{0.2em}{0ex}}=\phantom{\rule{0.2em}{0ex}}370$ (excluding frequency of missing ${X}_{i}$which is ${f}_{i}\phantom{\rule{0.2em}{0ex}}=\phantom{\rule{0.2em}{0ex}}10\right),\phantom{\rule{0.2em}{0ex}}\sum f=58$ (including frequency of missing integer) and $\overline{X}=\phantom{\rule{0.2em}{0ex}}7.586$. Which one of the following integers is approximately correct for missing$\phantom{\rule{0.2em}{0ex}}{X}_{i}$?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9

99. Which one of the following equations represents a true mathematical characteristics of mean?

(A) $\sum \left(X-\overline{X}\right)=\phantom{\rule{0.2em}{0ex}}$Minimum

(B) $\sum \left(X-\overline{X}\right)=0$

(C) $\sum \left(X-\overline{X}\right)=\phantom{\rule{0.2em}{0ex}}$Maximum

(D) $\sum \left(X-\overline{X}\right)=\phantom{\rule{0.2em}{0ex}}$Infinite

100. Which one of the following scales is correctly measure the rank-size distribution of settlements?

(A) Nominal

(B) Ordinal

(C) Interval

(D) Ratio